The BSA 2023

BSA 2023 — AIBE 2026 Study Module
AIBE 2026 • Bare Act Study Module

Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023

A section-wise, exam-oriented walkthrough of India’s new law of evidence (Act No. 47 of 2023, in force 1 July 2024) — built strictly from the Bare Act for AIBE 2026.

14 Topics 75 MCQs 20 Short + 10 Descriptive Flowchart • Mind Map • Roadmap
Disclaimer: This resource is for educational purposes only and does not constitute legal advice.

Why this matters

Evidence law decides how facts reach the Court. For AIBE, BSA 2023 is high-yield because it is new, definition-heavy, and packed with the ‘may presume / shall presume / conclusive proof’ distinctions examiners love. Work through the topics below, then test yourself with the three MCQ banks.

Topics (chapter & section-wise)

The first topic is open by default. Click any heading to expand or collapse.

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (BSA) is Act No. 47 of 2023. It came into force on 1st July 2024 and replaces the old Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Its stated aim is to consolidate and provide general rules and principles of evidence for fair trial.

Object and purpose

  • It is an adjective law — it does not create offences or rights; it tells the Court how facts may be proved.
  • It applies the same core principles the old Act had, but is re-organised and updated to deal squarely with electronic and digital records.
  • It works hand-in-hand with the BNS, 2023 (offences) and BNSS, 2023 (procedure). Many BSA presumptions point directly to BNS sections.

Three words you must lock in

  • Evidence S.2(1)(e) — means and includes oral evidence (statements, including electronic, that the Court permits or requires witnesses to make) and documentary evidence (documents, including electronic/digital records, produced for inspection).
  • Facts in issue S.2(1)(g) — facts from which the existence, nature or extent of a right or liability necessarily follows. In a murder trial, ‘A caused B’s death’ is a fact in issue.
  • Relevant fact S.2(1)(k) — a fact connected to another in one of the ways the Adhiniyam itself lists (Sections 4–50).

Simple example

In a theft trial, fact in issue = ‘Did A steal the phone?’ A relevant fact = A was seen near the shop at the time (relevant under S.7 / S.9). Only facts in issue and relevant facts may be proved — S.3.

How to study BSA for AIBE

Go chapter-wise. Master the high-yield blocks first: Relevancy (S.3–50), Admissions & Confessions (S.15–24), Documentary & Electronic Evidence (S.56–93), Burden of Proof (S.104–120), Witnesses (S.124–139) and Examination of Witnesses (S.140–168). Learn definitions cold — AIBE loves the ‘may presume / shall presume / conclusive proof’ trio.

S.1 Short title, application and commencement

  • Short title: the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
  • Applies to all judicial proceedings in or before any Court, including Courts-martial.
  • Does NOT apply to (i) affidavits presented to a Court or officer, and (ii) proceedings before an arbitrator.
  • Came into force on 1 July 2024 by Government notification.

S.2 Key definitions

Section 2 — definitions you must memorise
TermBare Act meaning (simplified)
CourtIncludes all Judges and Magistrates, and all persons (except arbitrators) legally authorised to take evidence.
DocumentAny matter recorded by letters, figures or marks (or other means) intended/usable for recording — includes electronic and digital records (emails, server logs, messages, websites, locational evidence, voicemail).
EvidenceOral evidence (incl. statements given electronically) + documentary evidence (incl. electronic/digital records).
FactAnything perceivable by the senses, or any mental condition a person is conscious of.
ProvedCourt believes it exists, or thinks it so probable a prudent person would act on it.
DisprovedCourt believes it does not exist, or thinks non-existence so probable a prudent person would act on it.
Not provedNeither proved nor disproved.
May presumeCourt may treat the fact as proved unless disproved, or call for proof of it.
Shall presumeCourt must treat the fact as proved unless and until it is disproved.
Conclusive proofOn proof of one fact the Court regards the other as proved and will not allow evidence to disprove it.

Linked laws — S.2(2)

Words not defined in the BSA but defined in the Information Technology Act, 2000, the BNSS, 2023 or the BNS, 2023 carry the same meaning. So BSA does not work in isolation.

Common trap

‘May presume’ ≠ ‘shall presume’ ≠ ‘conclusive proof’. Strength rises in that order. Conclusive proof is the only one where contrary evidence is barred.

AIBE takeaway

Remember the three exclusions of S.1: affidavits, arbitrators, and (no) — courts-martial are INCLUDED. Examiners flip ‘included/excluded’ on courts-martial.

This is the heart of evidence law and a huge AIBE scoring zone. A fact can only be proved if it is a fact in issue or is made relevant by one of these sections S.3.

Relevancy of facts — quick map (S.3–50)
SectionWhat becomes relevant
S.3Facts in issue + relevant facts — and of no others.
S.4Facts forming part of the same transaction (res gestae idea).
S.5Facts that are the occasion, cause or effect of a fact in issue/relevant fact.
S.6Motive, preparation and previous/subsequent conduct.
S.7Facts needed to explain or introduce, establish identity, or fix time/place.
S.8Things said/done by a conspirator in reference to the common design.
S.9Otherwise irrelevant facts become relevant if inconsistent with, or make highly probable/improbable, a fact in issue.
S.10Facts helping the Court fix the amount of damages.
S.11Facts relevant when a right or custom is in question.
S.12Facts showing a state of mind / body (intention, knowledge, good faith, ill-will, bodily feeling).
S.13Facts on whether an act was accidental or intentional (series of similar occurrences).
S.14Existence of a course of business.
S.26Statements by persons who are dead / cannot be found (incl. dying declarations).
S.34–38When judgments of courts are relevant.
S.39–45Expert opinions & opinions on handwriting, custom, relationship, etc.
S.46–50When character is relevant.

Closely connected facts (S.4–14)

  • S.4 Same transaction: things said/done so connected with the main fact that they form one transaction — whether same time/place or not.
  • S.6 Motive, preparation, conduct: e.g. buying poison before a poisoning (preparation); absconding after the crime (subsequent conduct). Conduct excludes mere statements unless they accompany and explain an act.
  • S.8 Conspiracy: once there is reasonable ground to believe a conspiracy exists, anything said/done/written by one conspirator in reference to the common intention is relevant against all.
  • S.12 State of mind: intention, knowledge, good faith, ill-will — but it must relate to the particular matter, not general disposition.

Statements by persons who cannot be called (S.26–27)

S.26 makes statements of a person who is dead, cannot be found, has become incapable, or whose attendance is unreasonably delayed/expensive relevant in eight situations — the most important being:

  • (a) Dying declaration — statement as to cause of death or the circumstances of the transaction that resulted in death. Expectation of death is NOT required under BSA.
  • (b) Statements in the ordinary course of business.
  • (c) Statements against the maker’s own pecuniary/proprietary interest.

Judgments (S.34–38)

  • S.34 a previous judgment that bars a second suit/trial is relevant.
  • S.35 probate, matrimonial, admiralty, insolvency judgments are relevant and act in rem (conclusive proof of legal character).
  • S.37 judgments other than those in S.34–36 are generally irrelevant unless their existence is itself a fact in issue.

Expert & other opinions (S.39–45)

  • S.39 opinion of a person specially skilled in foreign law, science, art, handwriting or finger impressions is relevant. S.39(2): the opinion of the Examiner of Electronic Evidence (IT Act s.79A) on electronic data is relevant — and the Examiner is an expert.
  • S.41 opinion on handwriting/signature; S.41(2) Certifying Authority’s opinion on an electronic signature.

Character (S.46–50)

  • S.46 in civil cases character to prove conduct is generally irrelevant.
  • S.47 in criminal cases previous good character is relevant.
  • S.48 in listed sexual-offence prosecutions, the victim’s character or previous sexual experience is NOT relevant on the issue of consent.
  • S.49 previous bad character is irrelevant except in reply (i.e. after good character is pleaded).

Conspiracy example (S.8)

If there is reasonable ground to believe A, B and C conspired to wage war, the arms B bought, the money C collected, and the letters D wrote are all relevant against A — even acts done before A joined or after A left.

Trap — good vs bad character

In criminal cases: good character is always relevant (S.47); bad character is irrelevant unless good character is first pleaded (S.49). Examiners swap these.

AIBE takeaway

Dying declaration under BSA needs no expectation of death and applies to any proceeding where the cause of death is in question. That is a favourite one-liner.
  • S.51 A fact of which the Court takes judicial notice need not be proved.
  • S.52 Lists facts the Court shall take judicial notice of — e.g. all laws in force in India, treaties, seals of courts, the territory of India, the rule of the road, public holidays notified in the Gazette, and the existence/flag of recognised countries. For matters of public history, science, art, etc., the Court may consult reference books.
  • S.53 Admitted facts need not be proved — though the Court may still require proof in its discretion.

Example

Nobody has to lead evidence to prove that the Constitution of India exists, or that Republic Day is 26 January — the Court takes judicial notice (S.52).

AIBE takeaway

Judicial notice = no proof needed. ‘Admitted’ facts (S.53) also need no proof, but the Court retains discretion to ask for proof anyway.
  • S.54 All facts except the contents of documents may be proved by oral evidence.
  • S.55 Oral evidence must in all cases be direct: a witness must speak to what they themselves saw, heard or perceived; an opinion must come from the person who holds it. This is how the Act keeps out hearsay.

Direct vs hearsay

‘I saw A stab B’ = direct, admissible. ‘X told me he saw A stab B’ = hearsay, generally not admissible under S.55.

Trap

Contents of a document cannot be proved by oral evidence (S.54 carve-out) — you need the document itself (primary) or secondary evidence under the documentary-evidence rules.

AIBE takeaway

Two exceptions to the ‘direct’ rule in S.55: (1) experts’ opinions in published treatises where the author is dead/unavailable; (2) the Court may require production of a material thing referred to.

One of the biggest AIBE blocks. Contents of documents may be proved by primary or secondary evidence S.56.

Primary vs Secondary evidence
PointPrimary evidence (S.57)Secondary evidence (S.58)
MeaningThe document itself, produced for inspection.Substitutes: certified copies, mechanical/compared copies, oral accounts by one who saw it, admissions, etc.
RuleDocuments shall be proved by primary evidence (S.59).Allowed only in the situations listed in S.60.
Electronic angleAn electronic record from proper custody is primary unless disputed; each simultaneous/sequential file is primary (S.57 Explns 4–7).Hash-matched copies and computer output (S.63) operate here.

Primary & secondary evidence (S.57–60)

  • S.57 Primary evidence = the document itself. New Explanations make electronic records from proper custody primary unless disputed.
  • S.58 Secondary evidence includes certified copies, mechanical copies, compared copies, counterparts, and oral accounts by someone who saw the document.
  • S.59 documents shall be proved by primary evidence — except as allowed below.
  • S.60 secondary evidence is allowed when, e.g., the original is with the opponent and not produced after notice, is destroyed/lost, is not easily movable, is a public document, or consists of numerous documents inconvenient to examine.
  • S.64 before giving secondary evidence under S.60(a), the party must usually give notice to produce.

Proof of signatures, attestation & comparison (S.65–73)

  • S.65 signature/handwriting alleged to be a person’s must be proved to be his.
  • S.66 proof of an electronic signature (except a secure electronic signature).
  • S.67 a document required by law to be attested needs at least one attesting witness called — with a registration proviso (not for wills).
  • S.72 the Court may compare a disputed signature/writing/seal with an admitted one; applies to finger impressions too.
  • S.73 verification of a digital signature using the public key in the Digital Signature Certificate.

Public documents & certified copies (S.74–77)

Public vs Private documents (S.74)
Public documents (S.74(1))Private documents (S.74(2))
Acts/records of sovereign authority, official bodies, tribunals, and public officers (legislative, judicial, executive) of India or a foreign country; public records of private documents kept by the State.Every document that is not a public document.
Proved by certified copies (S.76); presumption of genuineness (S.78).Proved by primary evidence (the document itself), or secondary evidence if S.60 applies.

Presumptions as to documents (S.78–93)

  • S.78 Court shall presume genuineness of certified copies.
  • S.80–81 presumption as to Gazettes/newspapers — and the same for Gazettes in electronic form.
  • S.85 presumption as to electronic agreements; S.86 as to secure electronic records & signatures; S.87 as to Electronic Signature Certificates.
  • S.92 documents thirty years old from proper custody — Court may presume due execution. S.93 electronic records five years old — may presume the electronic signature.

Exclusion of oral by documentary evidence (S.94–103)

  • S.94 when contract/grant/disposition is reduced to writing, only the document (or admissible secondary evidence) proves its terms.
  • S.95 no oral evidence to contradict, vary, add to or subtract from the written terms — subject to listed provisos (fraud, want of execution, separate oral agreement on a silent matter, condition precedent, subsequent rescission, usage, etc.).
  • S.96–101 how the Court handles ambiguous / plain / unmeaning language.

Secondary evidence example (S.60)

If the original agreement is lost despite reasonable care, the party may prove its contents by a certified or compared copy — that is permitted secondary evidence under S.60(c).

Trap — 30 vs 5 years

30 years for ordinary documents (S.92); 5 years for electronic records (S.93). Both are ‘may presume’, both need proper custody.

AIBE takeaway

S.59 = default is primary evidence; S.60 lists the exceptions for secondary evidence. Public documents are proved by certified copies (S.76). Learn the S.60 exceptions as a list.

This is the single most important new theme in BSA. Expect direct questions.

Oral vs Documentary vs Electronic evidence
TypeCore sectionsHow it is proved
OralS.54–55Direct testimony of a witness who perceived the fact; no hearsay.
DocumentaryS.56–103Primary evidence (the document) or secondary evidence (S.60) where allowed.
Electronic / digitalS.61–63, 85–93Admissible like any document (S.61); computer output admissible with the S.63(4) certificate; supported by presumptions.
  • S.61 An electronic/digital record cannot be denied admissibility merely because it is electronic; subject to S.63 it has the same legal effect and validity as any other document.
  • S.62 Contents of electronic records are proved in accordance with S.63.
  • S.63 Admissibility of electronic records. ‘Computer output’ (printout / stored / copied) is deemed a document and is admissible without producing the original if the S.63(2) conditions are met (regular use, regular feeding of data, proper working, accurate reproduction). S.63(4) requires a certificate — in the form in the Schedule — signed by the person in charge and an expert, submitted each time the record is produced.
  • S.66 proof of an electronic signature (except a secure one).
  • S.73 verification of a digital signature via the public key in the Digital Signature Certificate.
  • S.81 presumption of genuineness of an electronic Gazette.
  • S.85 presumption that an electronic agreement was concluded by the parties’ electronic/digital signatures.
  • S.86 for a secure electronic record — presumed unaltered; for a secure electronic signature — presumed affixed with intent. (No such presumption for ordinary, non-secure records.)
  • S.87 presumption that information in an Electronic Signature Certificate is correct (if accepted by the subscriber).
  • S.90 presumption about an electronic message matching what was fed for transmission — but no presumption about who sent it.
  • S.93 electronic records 5 years old from proper custody — may presume the electronic signature.

Practical examples

WhatsApp chats, emails, CCTV footage, server logs, screenshots and call records are all electronic records. To put a CCTV printout/clip on record you generally need the S.63(4) certificate describing the device, custody and (now) a hash value per the Schedule.

Trap — S.90 sender

S.90 lets the Court presume the message content corresponds to what was fed for transmission, but it shall not presume who sent it. Don’t over-read it.

Secure vs ordinary

Presumptions of integrity/intent under S.86 apply only to a secure electronic record or secure electronic signature — not to ordinary ones.

AIBE takeaway

Anchor trio: S.61 (no denial just because electronic), S.62 (prove via S.63), S.63 (computer output + certificate in the Schedule). The Schedule certificate now expects a hash value.

Burden of proof tells you who loses if nothing is proved. Pair it with the presumption verbs from S.2.

Burden of proof & presumptions
SectionRule
S.104Whoever wants the Court to act on facts must prove them.
S.105Burden lies on the person who would fail if no evidence were given on either side.
S.106Burden of a particular fact is on the one who wants the Court to believe it.
S.108Accused claiming a General Exception (BNS) must prove it; Court presumes absence of such circumstances.
S.109Fact especially within knowledge — burden on that person (e.g. travelling without a ticket).
S.110Person alive within 30 years — one alleging death must prove it.
S.111Not heard of for 7 years — burden shifts to one alleging he is alive.
S.114Active confidence (e.g. advocate–client) — good faith must be proved by the dominant party.
S.116Birth during a valid marriage (or within 280 days of dissolution, mother unmarried) = conclusive proof of legitimacy, unless no access is shown.
S.117Suicide by a married woman within 7 years + cruelty shown — Court may presume abetment.
S.118Dowry death + cruelty soon before death — Court shall presume the accused caused it.
S.119Court may presume existence of facts (stolen goods, regular official acts, withheld evidence, etc.).
S.120Rape under BNS s.64(2): if intercourse is proved and the woman says she did not consent, Court shall presume absence of consent.

S.106 example

A is charged with travelling on a train without a ticket. Whether he had a ticket is especially within his knowledge, so the burden of proving he had one is on him.

Trap — may vs shall vs conclusive

S.117 abetment of suicide = may presume. S.118 dowry death = shall presume. S.116 legitimacy = conclusive proof. S.120 rape consent = shall presume. Memorise the verbs.

AIBE takeaway

S.105 (who fails if no evidence) is the master rule; the rest are special shifts. Numbers 116/117/118/120 are repeatedly tested for their presumption strength.
  • S.121 Estoppel: if by declaration, act or omission you intentionally make another believe a thing is true and he acts on it, you cannot later deny that thing in a suit between you.
  • S.122 Tenant/licensee estoppel: a tenant (or one claiming through him) cannot deny that the landlord had title at the start of the tenancy; a licensee cannot deny the licensor’s title at the time the licence was given.
  • S.123 Acceptor / bailee / licensee: an acceptor of a bill of exchange cannot deny the drawer’s authority; a bailee/licensee cannot deny the bailor’s/licensor’s authority.

S.121 example

A falsely makes B believe certain land is A’s and B buys it. Later A’s defective title is cured. A cannot set aside the sale by pleading he had no title when he sold — he is estopped.

AIBE takeaway

Estoppel prevents a person from denying what he led another to believe. It is a rule of evidence, not a cause of action.
  • S.124 All persons are competent to testify unless prevented from understanding/answering by tender years, old age, disease or the like. Unsound mind is not automatically incompetent.
  • S.125 A witness unable to speak may testify by writing/signs in open court (treated as oral evidence); if unable to communicate verbally, the Court takes help of an interpreter/special educator and the statement is videographed.
  • S.126 Spouses are competent witnesses in civil and criminal cases.
  • S.128 Communications during marriage are privileged — not to be disclosed without consent (exceptions: suits between the spouses, or prosecution of one for a crime against the other).
  • S.129–131 privileges for affairs of State, official communications, and information about offences.
  • S.132 Professional communications with an advocate are privileged — except communications made to further an illegal purpose, or facts showing a crime/fraud since the engagement. Extends to interpreters and clerks.
  • S.137 A witness is not excused from answering merely because the answer may incriminate — but such compelled answers cannot be used to prosecute him (except for false evidence).
  • S.138 An accomplice is a competent witness; a conviction on corroborated accomplice testimony is not illegal.
  • S.139 No particular number of witnesses is required to prove any fact.

S.128 example

A husband cannot be compelled to reveal what his wife privately told him during the marriage — unless she consents, or it is a suit between them, or he is prosecuted for a crime against her.

Trap — quality not quantity

S.139: there is no minimum number of witnesses. One reliable witness can suffice. Examiners suggest ‘two witnesses required’ — that is wrong.

AIBE takeaway

Privileges cluster: marriage (S.128), State (S.129), official (S.130), advocate (S.132). The advocate privilege breaks for illegal-purpose communications.

Another heavy AIBE block. Learn the three stages and the rules on leading questions, contradiction and the judge’s powers.

Examination of witnesses — summary
Stage / conceptSectionKey rule
Examination-in-chiefS.142(1)By the party who calls the witness.
Cross-examinationS.142(2)By the adverse party; need not be confined to facts in chief.
Re-examinationS.142(3)By the calling party, to explain matters from cross-examination.
OrderS.143Chief → cross → re-exam.
Leading questionsS.146Not allowed in chief/re-exam if objected (unless Court permits); allowed in cross.
Cross on prior writingS.148Allowed; to contradict, his attention must be drawn to the relevant parts first.
Lawful cross questionsS.149Test veracity, identity, or shake credit — with the sexual-offence proviso protecting the victim.
Indecent / scandalousS.154Court may forbid unless they relate to facts in issue.
Insult / annoyS.155Court shall forbid.
Impeaching creditS.158By unworthiness, bribery, or prior inconsistent statements.
Refreshing memoryS.162From a writing made at/near the time.
Judge’s powerS.168Judge may ask any question / order production to discover relevant facts.
  • S.140 order of producing witnesses follows civil/criminal procedure, else the Court’s discretion.
  • S.146 a leading question suggests its own answer; not allowed in examination-in-chief or re-examination if objected, but freely allowed in cross-examination.
  • S.149 cross may test veracity, identity, or shake credit — but in listed sexual offences, questions about the victim’s general character or previous sexual experience to prove consent are barred.
  • S.158 credit may be impeached by showing the witness is unworthy of credit, was bribed, or made prior inconsistent statements.
  • S.160 former statements may be proved to corroborate later testimony.
  • S.168 the Judge may ask any question in any form at any time and order production — but judgment must rest on relevant, duly-proved facts, and the Judge cannot override the privileges in S.127–136.

Leading question example (S.146)

In chief: ‘Did you see the accused at 9 pm?’ is leading and objectionable. In cross: the same leading question is perfectly allowed.

Trap — S.154 vs S.155

Indecent/scandalous questions — Court may forbid (S.154). Questions to insult/annoy — Court shall forbid (S.155). ‘May’ vs ‘shall’ is the catch.

AIBE takeaway

Three stages (S.142), order chief→cross→re-exam (S.143), leading allowed only in cross (S.146), and the Judge’s wide powers (S.168) are the most-asked points.
  • S.169 The improper admission or rejection of evidence is not by itself a ground for a new trial or reversal, if the Court finds that — setting aside the wrongly admitted evidence — there was still enough evidence to justify the decision, or that the rejected evidence would not have changed it.

AIBE takeaway

S.169 is a ‘no-prejudice’ rule: a wrong evidentiary ruling does not automatically upset the verdict if the outcome would be the same anyway.
  • S.170(1) The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is repealed.
  • S.170(2) But anything pending immediately before BSA came into force (application, trial, inquiry, investigation, proceeding or appeal) continues under the old 1872 Act, as if BSA had not come into force.

AIBE takeaway

Old Act repealed, but pending matters stay governed by the 1872 Act — a classic transitional-provision question.

Most important sections

  • S.3, S.4, S.6, S.8 (relevancy)
  • S.15–24 (admissions/confessions)
  • S.61–63 (electronic)
  • S.104–120 (burden)
  • S.142–146, 168 (examination)

Electronic evidence

  • S.61 — no denial because electronic
  • S.62 — prove via S.63
  • S.63(4) — certificate (Schedule) + hash
  • S.85–87, 90, 93 — presumptions

Admissions & confessions

  • S.15 admission defined
  • S.22 induced confession irrelevant
  • S.23 confession to police barred (discovery proviso)
  • S.24 joint-trial confession

Burden of proof

  • S.105 who fails if no evidence
  • S.109 fact within knowledge
  • S.116 legitimacy = conclusive
  • S.118 dowry = shall presume

Examination of witnesses

  • S.142 three stages
  • S.143 chief→cross→re-exam
  • S.146 leading only in cross
  • S.168 judge’s power

Key distinctions

  • may / shall presume / conclusive proof
  • primary (S.57) vs secondary (S.58)
  • public vs private docs (S.74)
  • good (S.47) vs bad (S.49) character

Structure Flowchart

BSA 2023 (Act 47/2023) In force 1 July 2024 RelevancyS.3–50 On ProofS.51–103 Production & EffectS.104–168 RepealS.169–170 Admissions & Confessions (S.15–24) Documentary Evidence (S.56–103) Electronic Evidence (S.61–63, 85–93) Burden of Proof (S.104–120) Witnesses (S.124–139) Examination of Witnesses (S.140–168) Facts proved → Fair decision Goal of evidence law
How the parts of BSA 2023 fit together.

Mind Map

BSA 2023 Evidence Law RelevancyS.3–50 (transaction, motive, conspiracy) Oral & DocumentaryS.54–103 Electronic EvidenceS.61–63, 85–93 Admissions/ConfessionsS.15–24 Burden of ProofS.104–120 WitnessesS.124–139 ExaminationS.140–168
One-look revision map of the major themes.

Study Roadmap

1 Foundations S.1–3 defns 2 Relevancy S.4–50 3 Documentary + Electronic S.56–103 4 Burden S.104–120 5 Witnesses S.124–168 Then loop back: revise high-yield sections + practise MCQs
A 5-step path for AIBE 2026 preparation.

Section-wise MCQs

Direct, section-based questions from the Bare Act. 25 questions.

Q1. On what date did the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 come into force?easy
  • A. 1 July 2023
  • B. 25 December 2023
  • C. 1 July 2024
  • D. 26 January 2024
Q2. Under S.1, the BSA does NOT apply to:moderate
  • A. Courts-martial
  • B. Affidavits and arbitration proceedings
  • C. Criminal trials
  • D. Civil suits
Q3. ‘Conclusive proof’ under S.2 means:moderate
  • A. The Court may presume the fact
  • B. The Court must regard the other fact as proved and will not allow evidence to disprove it
  • C. The fact is merely relevant
  • D. The Court shall presume unless disproved
Q4. ‘Shall presume’ under S.2 means the Court:easy
  • A. May regard the fact as proved or call for proof
  • B. Must regard the fact as proved unless and until disproved
  • C. Cannot allow any rebuttal
  • D. Must reject the fact
Q5. Under S.3, evidence may be given of:easy
  • A. Any fact the parties wish
  • B. Facts in issue and relevant facts, and of no others
  • C. Only facts in issue
  • D. Only documentary facts
Q6. Facts so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction are relevant under:easy
  • A. S.4
  • B. S.6
  • C. S.8
  • D. S.9
Q7. Motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct are dealt with in:easy
  • A. S.5
  • B. S.6
  • C. S.7
  • D. S.8
Q8. Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to the common design are relevant under:moderate
  • A. S.6
  • B. S.7
  • C. S.8
  • D. S.10
Q9. An ‘admission’ is defined in:easy
  • A. S.14
  • B. S.15
  • C. S.16
  • D. S.19
Q10. A confession caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise is, in a criminal proceeding:moderate
  • A. Always relevant
  • B. Irrelevant
  • C. Conclusive proof
  • D. Relevant only in civil cases
Q11. Confession made to a police officer is governed by:moderate
  • A. S.22
  • B. S.23
  • C. S.24
  • D. S.25
Q12. A dying declaration / statement by a person who is dead is made relevant by:moderate
  • A. S.24
  • B. S.26
  • C. S.28
  • D. S.34
Q13. The opinion of the Examiner of Electronic Evidence is a relevant fact under:hard
  • A. S.39(1)
  • B. S.39(2)
  • C. S.41
  • D. S.45
Q14. Facts of which the Court shall take judicial notice are listed in:easy
  • A. S.51
  • B. S.52
  • C. S.53
  • D. S.54
Q15. Which facts may be proved by oral evidence under S.54?moderate
  • A. All facts including contents of documents
  • B. All facts except the contents of documents
  • C. Only facts in issue
  • D. Only relevant facts
Q16. ‘Primary evidence’ means:easy
  • A. A certified copy
  • B. The document itself produced for inspection
  • C. An oral account of a document
  • D. A compared copy
Q17. Which of the following is secondary evidence under S.58?moderate
  • A. The original document
  • B. Certified copies and copies compared with the original
  • C. An electronic record from proper custody
  • D. A document executed in several parts
Q18. Admissibility of an electronic/digital record cannot be denied merely because it is electronic — this rule is in:moderate
  • A. S.60
  • B. S.61
  • C. S.62
  • D. S.66
Q19. The certificate for admitting computer output is required by:hard
  • A. S.61
  • B. S.62
  • C. S.63(4)
  • D. S.66
Q20. Public and private documents are defined in:moderate
  • A. S.72
  • B. S.74
  • C. S.76
  • D. S.78
Q21. Presumption as to documents thirty years old is found in:moderate
  • A. S.90
  • B. S.91
  • C. S.92
  • D. S.93
Q22. Presumption as to electronic records five years old is in:moderate
  • A. S.85
  • B. S.86
  • C. S.92
  • D. S.93
Q23. The general rule on burden of proof is stated in:easy
  • A. S.104
  • B. S.108
  • C. S.114
  • D. S.119
Q24. Birth during a valid marriage is conclusive proof of legitimacy under:moderate
  • A. S.112
  • B. S.114
  • C. S.116
  • D. S.118
Q25. A leading question may be freely asked in:easy
  • A. Examination-in-chief
  • B. Re-examination
  • C. Cross-examination
  • D. None of these

Argument-wise MCQs

Short fact-based reasoning questions. 25 questions.

Q1. A buys poison a day before B dies of poisoning. The purchase of poison is relevant as:easy
  • A. A confession
  • B. Preparation under S.6
  • C. Judicial notice
  • D. Conclusive proof
Q2. After a murder, A absconds on receiving a warning letter. A’s absconding is relevant as:easy
  • A. Motive
  • B. Subsequent conduct under S.6
  • C. Hearsay
  • D. Character evidence
Q3. X tells the Court ‘Y told me he saw the accident.’ This is:moderate
  • A. Direct oral evidence
  • B. Hearsay, generally inadmissible under S.55
  • C. Documentary evidence
  • D. An admission
Q4. The original sale deed is lost despite reasonable care. The party may prove its contents by:moderate
  • A. No evidence at all
  • B. Secondary evidence under S.60(c)
  • C. Only the opponent’s admission
  • D. Oral evidence of a stranger only
Q5. A wants to put CCTV footage printout on record. He most likely needs:hard
  • A. Nothing extra
  • B. A certificate under S.63(4) describing the device and custody
  • C. Only oral evidence
  • D. A confession
Q6. A is charged with travelling without a ticket. Who must prove he had a ticket?moderate
  • A. The prosecution
  • B. A himself, under S.109
  • C. The Court
  • D. No one
Q7. In a suit, if no evidence were led by either side, the plaintiff would lose. The burden of proof lies on:moderate
  • A. The defendant
  • B. The plaintiff, under S.105
  • C. The Court
  • D. Both equally
Q8. A confession is made to a police officer during investigation. Against the accused it is:moderate
  • A. Fully admissible
  • B. Not provable under S.23 (subject to the discovery proviso)
  • C. Conclusive proof
  • D. Relevant as an admission
Q9. A wife privately tells her husband a fact during marriage. In a later suit the husband:moderate
  • A. Must disclose it
  • B. Cannot be compelled to disclose it under S.128
  • C. May be cross-examined on it freely
  • D. Loses competence as a witness
Q10. A client tells his advocate of a plan to commit forgery and asks him to sue on a forged deed. This communication is:hard
  • A. Privileged under S.132
  • B. Not protected, being in furtherance of an illegal purpose
  • C. Conclusive proof
  • D. Irrelevant
Q11. Only one eyewitness testifies, but his testimony is reliable. The conviction:easy
  • A. Is illegal for want of two witnesses
  • B. May stand — S.139 requires no particular number of witnesses
  • C. Needs corroboration always
  • D. Is barred
Q12. An accomplice testifies against the accused. His evidence:moderate
  • A. Is inadmissible
  • B. Is competent; conviction on corroborated accomplice evidence is not illegal (S.138)
  • C. Is conclusive proof
  • D. Cannot be corroborated
Q13. During cross-examination, counsel asks a leading question. This is:easy
  • A. Improper
  • B. Permitted under S.146(4)
  • C. Allowed only with the witness’s consent
  • D. Barred
Q14. A woman commits suicide within 7 years of marriage and cruelty by the husband is shown. The Court:hard
  • A. Shall presume abetment
  • B. May presume abetment under S.117
  • C. Treats it as conclusive proof
  • D. Cannot presume anything
Q15. In a dowry-death case, cruelty soon before death is shown. The Court:moderate
  • A. May presume
  • B. Shall presume the accused caused the dowry death (S.118)
  • C. Cannot presume
  • D. Treats it as estoppel
Q16. A tenant, after years of tenancy, tries to deny that his landlord had title at the start. He:moderate
  • A. May do so freely
  • B. Is estopped under S.122
  • C. Must prove the landlord’s title
  • D. Is a competent witness only
Q17. An expert wishes to refresh his memory before testifying. He may:moderate
  • A. Not refer to anything
  • B. Refer to a writing made at/near the time, and to professional treatises (S.162)
  • C. Only rely on memory
  • D. Refer to any document without limit
Q18. Counsel asks the victim in a rape trial about her previous sexual experience to prove consent. This is:hard
  • A. Permissible
  • B. Barred by the proviso to S.149 (and S.48)
  • C. Allowed in re-examination
  • D. Conclusive
Q19. A document required by law to be attested (a will) is tendered. To prove it:hard
  • A. No witness needed
  • B. At least one attesting witness must be called (S.67)
  • C. Two witnesses always needed
  • D. Only the executant’s admission
Q20. The Court wrongly admits a piece of evidence, but enough other evidence supports the verdict. Under S.169:moderate
  • A. The verdict must be reversed
  • B. It is not by itself a ground for a new trial
  • C. A retrial is mandatory
  • D. The case is dismissed
Q21. A is in possession of goods stolen soon after the theft and cannot explain it. The Court may presume he is the thief or receiver under:moderate
  • A. S.116
  • B. S.118
  • C. S.119 Illustration (a)
  • D. S.122
Q22. A proceeding was pending under the old Indian Evidence Act when BSA came into force. It will be:moderate
  • A. Dealt with under BSA
  • B. Dealt with under the old 1872 Act (S.170(2))
  • C. Dismissed
  • D. Stayed indefinitely
Q23. Two persons are tried jointly for the same offence and one confesses, implicating both. The Court:hard
  • A. Cannot use it at all
  • B. May take the confession into consideration against the co-accused (S.24)
  • C. Treats it as conclusive proof
  • D. Must acquit
Q24. A message is forwarded through an email server. Under S.90 the Court may presume:hard
  • A. Who sent it
  • B. That the message corresponds with what was fed for transmission, but NOT who sent it
  • C. Nothing at all
  • D. That it is a secure record
Q25. A party calls for a document after giving notice, inspects it, and the producing party asks him to put it in evidence. He:hard
  • A. May refuse
  • B. Is bound to give it as evidence (S.166)
  • C. Can use it only in cross
  • D. Must return it

Statement-wise MCQs

Decide which statement(s) are correct. 25 questions.

Q1. Statement 1: BSA applies to courts-martial. Statement 2: BSA applies to arbitration proceedings.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only Statement 1 is correct
  • C. Only Statement 2 is correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q2. Statement 1: ‘May presume’ is rebuttable. Statement 2: ‘Conclusive proof’ bars contrary evidence.easy
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q3. Statement 1: Under S.3 only facts in issue may be proved. Statement 2: Relevant facts may also be proved.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q4. Statement 1: A dying declaration under S.26 requires expectation of death. Statement 2: It applies whatever the nature of the proceeding.hard
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q5. Statement 1: A confession to a police officer is freely provable. Statement 2: The discovery proviso under S.23 allows part of the information to be proved.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q6. Statement 1: Primary evidence is the document itself. Statement 2: Certified copies are primary evidence.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q7. Statement 1: Documents shall ordinarily be proved by primary evidence. Statement 2: Secondary evidence is allowed in the cases listed in S.60.easy
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q8. Statement 1: S.61 lets a record be rejected just because it is electronic. Statement 2: S.62 says contents of electronic records are proved under S.63.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q9. Statement 1: S.92 deals with 30-year-old documents. Statement 2: S.93 deals with 5-year-old electronic records.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q10. Statement 1: In criminal cases previous good character is relevant. Statement 2: Previous bad character is relevant even without good character being pleaded.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q11. Statement 1: Birth during marriage is conclusive proof of legitimacy. Statement 2: This presumption can be rebutted by showing the spouses had no access.hard
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q12. Statement 1: S.117 abetment of suicide is ‘shall presume’. Statement 2: S.118 dowry death is ‘shall presume’.hard
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q13. Statement 1: Leading questions are allowed in cross-examination. Statement 2: Leading questions are freely allowed in examination-in-chief.easy
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q14. Statement 1: Indecent/scandalous questions — the Court may forbid. Statement 2: Questions to insult or annoy — the Court shall forbid.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q15. Statement 1: An accomplice is a competent witness. Statement 2: A conviction on corroborated accomplice testimony is not illegal.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q16. Statement 1: No particular number of witnesses is required. Statement 2: At least two witnesses are needed for a valid conviction.easy
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q17. Statement 1: A witness unable to speak may testify by writing/signs in open court. Statement 2: Such evidence is treated as documentary evidence.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q18. Statement 1: Communications during marriage are privileged. Statement 2: The privilege is lost in a prosecution of one spouse for a crime against the other.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q19. Statement 1: S.86 presumes integrity for any electronic record. Statement 2: That presumption applies only to a SECURE electronic record/signature.hard
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q20. Statement 1: Under S.90 the Court may presume the sender of an electronic message. Statement 2: Under S.90 the Court may presume the message matches what was fed for transmission.hard
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q21. Statement 1: Judicial notice means a fact must still be formally proved. Statement 2: Admitted facts need not be proved.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q22. Statement 1: The Judge may ask any question at any time under S.168. Statement 2: The Judge may override the privileges in S.127–136.hard
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q23. Statement 1: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is repealed by BSA. Statement 2: Pending proceedings are governed by BSA.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q24. Statement 1: Estoppel can be a cause of action by itself. Statement 2: Estoppel prevents a person denying what he led another to believe.moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect
Q25. Statement 1: Oral evidence must be direct (S.55). Statement 2: Contents of a document may be proved by oral evidence (S.54).moderate
  • A. Both correct
  • B. Only 1 correct
  • C. Only 2 correct
  • D. Both incorrect

Short-Answer Questions

Write 4–6 lines each. 20 questions.

  1. State the date of commencement and the three categories to which the BSA does not apply (S.1).
  2. Distinguish ‘may presume’, ‘shall presume’ and ‘conclusive proof’ (S.2).
  3. What are ‘facts in issue’ and ‘relevant facts’? Give one example of each.
  4. Explain the doctrine of same transaction under S.4 with an example.
  5. How are motive, preparation and conduct made relevant under S.6?
  6. When are the acts of a conspirator relevant against a co-conspirator (S.8)?
  7. Define ‘admission’ (S.15) and state when a confession is irrelevant (S.22).
  8. State the rule on confessions to a police officer and its discovery proviso (S.23).
  9. List any four situations in which secondary evidence may be given (S.60).
  10. Distinguish primary and secondary evidence (S.57–58).
  11. What is required to admit computer output as evidence (S.63)?
  12. Distinguish public and private documents (S.74).
  13. Compare the presumptions for 30-year-old documents and 5-year-old electronic records (S.92, S.93).
  14. State the general rule on burden of proof (S.104–105) with an illustration.
  15. Explain ‘fact especially within knowledge’ with the railway-ticket example (S.109).
  16. What is the presumption regarding birth during marriage (S.116)?
  17. Define estoppel and state the estoppel of a tenant (S.121–122).
  18. Who is a competent witness, and is there a minimum number of witnesses (S.124, S.139)?
  19. Explain the three stages of examination of witnesses (S.142–143).
  20. When are leading questions allowed and when forbidden (S.146)?

Descriptive / Long-Answer Questions

10 questions.

  1. ‘The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 modernises the law of evidence for the digital age.’ Discuss with reference to electronic evidence (S.61–63, 85–93).
  2. Explain the scheme of relevancy of facts under S.3–14, illustrating how closely connected facts become relevant.
  3. Critically examine the law on admissions and confessions under S.15–24, including confessions to police officers.
  4. Discuss the rules relating to documentary evidence — primary, secondary, and proof of execution (S.56–73).
  5. Explain the presumptions as to documents and electronic records (S.78–93) and their evidentiary value.
  6. Analyse the burden of proof and the special presumptions in S.104–120, distinguishing ‘may’, ‘shall’ and ‘conclusive proof’.
  7. Discuss the competence of witnesses and the various privileges recognised under S.124–134.
  8. Explain examination-in-chief, cross-examination and re-examination, and the Court’s power under S.140–168.
  9. Examine the doctrine of estoppel under S.121–123 with examples.
  10. Trace the relationship between the BSA, 2023 and the BNS & BNSS, 2023, and explain the repeal and savings provision (S.170).

Answer Key & Explanations

Section-wise MCQs

Q1 — C. Act No.47 of 2023 was enacted on 25 Dec 2023 but came into force on 1 July 2024 (S.1). (easy)
Q2 — B. S.1(2): applies to all judicial proceedings including courts-martial, but NOT to affidavits or proceedings before an arbitrator. (moderate)
Q3 — B. S.2(1)(b): on proof of one fact the Court regards the other as proved and bars evidence to disprove it. (moderate)
Q4 — B. S.2(1)(l): ‘shall presume’ = must treat as proved unless disproved (rebuttable). (easy)
Q5 — B. S.3 limits evidence to facts in issue and relevant facts — ‘and of no others’. (easy)
Q6 — A. S.4 makes facts forming part of the same transaction relevant. (easy)
Q7 — B. S.6 covers motive, preparation and conduct. (easy)
Q8 — C. S.8 deals with acts/statements of conspirators against all conspirators. (moderate)
Q9 — B. S.15 defines admission as a statement (oral/documentary/electronic) suggesting an inference as to a fact in issue or relevant fact. (easy)
Q10 — B. S.22 makes such an induced confession irrelevant in criminal proceedings. (moderate)
Q11 — B. S.23(1): no confession to a police officer shall be proved against the accused; proviso allows the ‘discovery’ portion. (moderate)
Q12 — B. S.26(a) makes a statement as to cause of death relevant; expectation of death is not required. (moderate)
Q13 — B. S.39(2): the Examiner of Electronic Evidence (IT Act s.79A) is an expert and his opinion is relevant. (hard)
Q14 — B. S.52 lists facts the Court shall take judicial notice of; S.51 says such facts need not be proved. (easy)
Q15 — B. S.54: all facts except the contents of documents may be proved by oral evidence. (moderate)
Q16 — B. S.57: primary evidence is the document itself produced for the Court’s inspection. (easy)
Q17 — B. S.58 lists certified copies, mechanical/compared copies, counterparts and oral accounts as secondary evidence. (moderate)
Q18 — B. S.61: such a record has the same legal effect as any document, subject to S.63. (moderate)
Q19 — C. S.63(4) requires a certificate (in the Schedule form) signed by the person in charge and an expert. (hard)
Q20 — B. S.74 defines public documents (S.74(1)) and private documents (S.74(2)). (moderate)
Q21 — C. S.92: documents 30 years old from proper custody — Court may presume due execution. S.93 is the 5-year electronic-records rule. (moderate)
Q22 — D. S.93: electronic records 5 years old from proper custody — may presume the electronic signature. (moderate)
Q23 — A. S.104: whoever wants the Court to act on asserted facts must prove them; S.105 says burden is on the one who would fail if no evidence. (easy)
Q24 — C. S.116: birth during marriage (or within 280 days of dissolution, mother unmarried) is conclusive proof of legitimacy unless non-access is shown. (moderate)
Q25 — C. S.146: leading questions are objectionable in chief/re-exam but allowed in cross-examination. (easy)

Argument-wise MCQs

Q1 — B. Buying poison beforehand is ‘preparation’, relevant under S.6. (easy)
Q2 — B. Absconding after the crime is subsequent conduct, relevant under S.6. (easy)
Q3 — B. S.55 requires oral evidence to be direct; X did not perceive the accident. (moderate)
Q4 — B. S.60(c) allows secondary evidence when the original is lost without the party’s default. (moderate)
Q5 — B. Computer output is admissible under S.63 with the S.63(4) certificate. (hard)
Q6 — B. S.109: a fact especially within a person’s knowledge must be proved by him. (moderate)
Q7 — B. S.105: burden is on the party who would fail if no evidence were given. (moderate)
Q8 — B. S.23 bars proof of a confession to a police officer; only the discovery portion may be proved. (moderate)
Q9 — B. S.128 protects communications during marriage from compelled disclosure (with exceptions). (moderate)
Q10 — B. S.132 proviso: communications made to further an illegal purpose are not protected. (hard)
Q11 — B. S.139: no particular number of witnesses is required to prove any fact. (easy)
Q12 — B. S.138: an accomplice is a competent witness. (moderate)
Q13 — B. S.146(4): leading questions may be asked in cross-examination. (easy)
Q14 — B. S.117: the Court may presume abetment of suicide in such circumstances. (hard)
Q15 — B. S.118: the Court shall presume in dowry-death cases. (moderate)
Q16 — B. S.122: a tenant cannot deny the landlord’s title at the beginning of the tenancy. (moderate)
Q17 — B. S.162 allows refreshing memory from contemporaneous writings; experts may use professional treatises. (moderate)
Q18 — B. S.149 proviso (and S.48) bar such questions on the issue of consent. (hard)
Q19 — B. S.67: a document required by law to be attested needs at least one attesting witness; the registration proviso does not cover wills. (hard)
Q20 — B. S.169: improper admission/rejection is not itself a ground for new trial if the result would be the same. (moderate)
Q21 — C. S.119 illustration (a): recent possession of stolen goods — may presume the person is thief/receiver unless explained. (moderate)
Q22 — B. S.170(2): pending matters continue under the repealed 1872 Act. (moderate)
Q23 — B. S.24: in a joint trial, such a confession may be considered against the co-accused too. (hard)
Q24 — B. S.90: presumption as to content correspondence, but no presumption as to the sender. (hard)
Q25 — B. S.166: a party who calls for and inspects a document produced on notice is bound to give it in evidence if required. (hard)

Statement-wise MCQs

Q1 — B. S.1: applies to courts-martial (1 correct) but NOT to arbitration (2 wrong). (moderate)
Q2 — A. S.2: may presume is rebuttable; conclusive proof bars rebuttal. (easy)
Q3 — C. S.3 allows both facts in issue AND relevant facts; so Statement 1 (‘only’) is wrong, Statement 2 is right. (moderate)
Q4 — C. Under S.26(a) expectation of death is NOT required (1 wrong); it applies whatever the proceeding (2 correct). (hard)
Q5 — C. S.23: confession to police not provable (1 wrong); discovery portion may be proved (2 correct). (moderate)
Q6 — B. S.57 primary = the document (1 correct); certified copies are secondary under S.58 (2 wrong). (moderate)
Q7 — A. S.59 (primary default) and S.60 (exceptions) — both correct. (easy)
Q8 — C. S.61 does the opposite (1 wrong); S.62 is correct. (moderate)
Q9 — A. S.92 (30 years) and S.93 (5 years) — both correct. (moderate)
Q10 — B. S.47 (good character relevant — 1 correct); S.49 bad character irrelevant unless in reply (2 wrong). (moderate)
Q11 — A. S.116: conclusive proof, but the ‘no access’ exception applies — both correct. (hard)
Q12 — C. S.117 is ‘may presume’ (1 wrong); S.118 is ‘shall presume’ (2 correct). (hard)
Q13 — B. S.146: allowed in cross (1 correct); objectionable in chief (2 wrong). (easy)
Q14 — A. S.154 (may forbid) and S.155 (shall forbid) — both correct. (moderate)
Q15 — A. S.138: both statements are correct. (moderate)
Q16 — B. S.139: no fixed number (1 correct); the ‘two witnesses’ rule is wrong (2 wrong). (easy)
Q17 — B. S.125: writing/signs in open court (1 correct), but it is deemed oral evidence (2 wrong). (moderate)
Q18 — A. S.128: both correct — privilege exists and has that exception. (moderate)
Q19 — C. S.86 presumptions apply only to secure records/signatures (1 wrong, 2 correct). (hard)
Q20 — C. S.90: no presumption as to sender (1 wrong); content correspondence presumed (2 correct). (hard)
Q21 — C. S.51: judicially-noticed facts need NO proof (1 wrong); S.53 admitted facts need no proof (2 correct). (moderate)
Q22 — B. S.168: wide power (1 correct) but the proviso preserves privileges S.127–136 (2 wrong). (hard)
Q23 — B. S.170: 1872 Act repealed (1 correct); pending matters continue under the old Act (2 wrong). (moderate)
Q24 — C. Estoppel is a rule of evidence, not a cause of action (1 wrong); S.121 definition (2 correct). (moderate)
Q25 — B. S.55 oral evidence must be direct (1 correct); S.54 excludes contents of documents from oral proof (2 wrong). (moderate)

Quick Revision Zone

Most important sections

  • S.3, S.4, S.6, S.8 (relevancy)
  • S.15–24 (admissions/confessions)
  • S.61–63 (electronic)
  • S.104–120 (burden)
  • S.142–146, 168 (examination)

Electronic evidence

  • S.61 — no denial because electronic
  • S.62 — prove via S.63
  • S.63(4) — certificate (Schedule) + hash
  • S.85–87, 90, 93 — presumptions

Admissions & confessions

  • S.15 admission defined
  • S.22 induced confession irrelevant
  • S.23 confession to police barred (discovery proviso)
  • S.24 joint-trial confession

Burden of proof

  • S.105 who fails if no evidence
  • S.109 fact within knowledge
  • S.116 legitimacy = conclusive
  • S.118 dowry = shall presume

Examination of witnesses

  • S.142 three stages
  • S.143 chief→cross→re-exam
  • S.146 leading only in cross
  • S.168 judge’s power

Key distinctions

  • may / shall presume / conclusive proof
  • primary (S.57) vs secondary (S.58)
  • public vs private docs (S.74)
  • good (S.47) vs bad (S.49) character

Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 — AIBE 2026 study module. Content grounded in the Bare Act (Act No. 47 of 2023).

This resource is for educational purposes only and does not constitute legal advice.

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