The BNSS 2023

AIBE 2026 · Bare Act Study Module

Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023

A complete, section-wise, exam-oriented guide to India's new criminal procedure law — explained in simple English, strictly from the Bare Act, for the All India Bar Examination 2026.

Act No. 46 of 2023 531 Sections 39 Chapters · 2 Schedules Replaced CrPC, 1973 In force from 1 July 2024
1

Introduction to BNSS 2023

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) is the new code of criminal procedure in India. It received the President's assent on 25 December 2023 and came into force on 1 July 2024. Section 531 expressly repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC). In simple words: the "how" of criminal justice — how a crime is reported, investigated, tried, and punished — now follows BNSS instead of the old CrPC.

Object and purpose

The long title says BNSS is an Act "to consolidate and amend the law relating to Criminal Procedure." It keeps the familiar CrPC skeleton (arrest, FIR, investigation, charge, trial, bail, appeal) but modernises it with technology, citizen-centric timelines, and victim rights.

🔑 Why "procedure" matters

Substantive law (the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) tells you what is a crime and its punishment. Procedural law (BNSS) tells you how the State enforces it — the step-by-step machinery from complaint to sentence. The third pillar is the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (law of evidence).

Why BNSS is important for AIBE 2026

  • BNSS now replaces CrPC as the examinable procedural code, so questions are framed on BNSS section numbers.
  • The section numbering has changed from CrPC — knowing the new numbers (e.g., FIR is now s.173, not s.154) is itself a scoring opportunity.
  • BNSS introduces new features (zero FIR in statute, electronic FIR, trial in absentia, forensic visits, mercy-petition timelines) that examiners love to test.

How to read this module

Each tab covers one logical block of BNSS, broken into accordions. For every important topic you get: the section number, a plain-English explanation from the Bare Act, key points, a student-friendly example, the common trap, and the exam takeaway. Then practise with three MCQ formats and self-check using the answer key.

🎯 Exam takeaway

Remember the three new codes together: BNS (crimes), BNSS (procedure), BSA (evidence). For procedure, always quote the new BNSS section number.

i

The Criminal Process at a Glance

Table 1 — The journey of a criminal case under BNSS
StageWhat happensKey BNSS sections
ReportInformation of offence given to police; FIR registereds.173–174
ArrestPolice/private person/Magistrate arrests the accuseds.35–62
InvestigationCollection of evidence, statements, forensic, charge sheets.175–193
CognizanceMagistrate takes notice of the offences.210–222
ChargeFormal accusation framed against the accuseds.234–247
TrialSessions / warrant / summons / summary trials.248–288
JudgmentConviction or acquittal; sentencings.392–406
BailRelease on bond/bail bond at any stages.478–496
Appeal/RevisionChallenge before higher courtss.413–445
ExecutionCarrying out sentence; suspension/remissions.453–477

Visual Learning — Flowchart, Mind Map & Study Roadmap

Three visual aids to lock in the structure of the BNSS: the criminal-process flowchart (the journey of a case), a topic mind map (how the high-yield chapters connect), and a study roadmap (a suggested order of preparation for AIBE 2026).

1 · The Criminal Process Flowchart

1 · FIR / Information s.173 (e-FIR, Zero FIR) 2 · Investigation s.175–187 (forensics s.176) 3 · Arrest s.35–62 (memo, 24-hr rule) 4 · Charge Sheet s.193 (police report) 5 · Cognizance s.210 (by Magistrate) 6 · Charge Framed s.234–235 7 · Trial s.248–288 8 · Judgment s.392 (uploaded online) 9 · Sentence / Bail s.478–479 10 · Appeal / Execution s.413 · s.453

Note: arrest may occur during investigation; the flow above shows the typical sequence of stages, not a rigid order.

2 · Topic Mind Map

BNSS 2023 Criminal Procedure Arrest & Custody Ch V · s.35–62 FIR & Investigation Ch XIII · s.173–193 Trials & Charge Ch XVIII–XXIII Bail & Bonds Ch XXXV · s.478–496 Maintenance & Mercy s.144 · s.472 Technology s.105 · 173 · 530

3 · Suggested Study Roadmap for AIBE 2026

1

Frame & foundations

Start with the big picture: what BNSS replaced (CrPC 1973, s.531), when it came into force (1 July 2024), and the definitions in s.2 (bail, bailable, cognizable, complaint, summons/warrant-case). Definitions are easy marks.

2

Arrest & the early process

Master Chapter V (s.35–62) — arrest without warrant, the memo of arrest, the 24-hour rule (s.58), and the new control-room/display duties (s.37). High-frequency in exams.

3

FIR & investigation

Then Chapter XIII (s.173–196) — Zero FIR & e-FIR (s.173), s.175(3) order to investigate, custody & default bail (s.187), and the charge sheet (s.193). Pair with the new forensic rule (s.176).

4

Trial, charge & plea bargaining

Cover cognizance (s.210), the charge (s.234–246), the four trial types (Ch XIX–XXII) and plea bargaining (s.289–300, with its exclusions). Learn which court tries what.

5

Bail, judgment & remedies

Finish with Chapter XXXV bail (s.478–496), the new undertrial release (s.479), judgment (s.392), and appeals/revision (s.413–445). These tie the whole process together.

6

Revise the "NEW" features & drill MCQs

Consolidate the reform highlights (community service, s.105 recording, s.356 trial in absentia, s.472 mercy timeline, s.530 e-mode) and then attempt the MCQ bank below under timed conditions.

Q

Question Bank — MCQs, Short & Descriptive

Seventy-five MCQs in three formats (section-wise, argument/application-wise, statement-wise), plus short-answer and descriptive questions. These are original practice questions written for this module — not reproductions of any past paper. Attempt them first, then reveal the answer key at the end.

A · Section-wise MCQs (Q1–Q25)

Q1. The BNSS, 2023 came into force on: Easy

  1. 25 December 2023
  2. 26 January 2024
  3. 1 July 2024
  4. 1 April 2024

Q2. Which section of the BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? Easy

  1. Section 1
  2. Section 530
  3. Section 531
  4. Section 484

Q3. The total number of sections in the BNSS, 2023 is: Easy

  1. 484
  2. 511
  3. 531
  4. 358

Q4. Arrest by a police officer without a warrant is primarily dealt with under: Easy

  1. Section 35
  2. Section 41
  3. Section 63
  4. Section 173

Q5. The rule that an arrested person must be produced before a Magistrate within 24 hours is found in: Moderate

  1. Section 47
  2. Section 57
  3. Section 58
  4. Section 62

Q6. The statutory recognition of "Zero FIR" and electronic FIR is in: Easy

  1. Section 154
  2. Section 173
  3. Section 175
  4. Section 176

Q7. The mandatory visit of a forensic expert for offences punishable with 7 years or more is required by: Moderate

  1. Section 176(3)
  2. Section 180
  3. Section 105
  4. Section 193

Q8. Audio-video recording of a search and the seizure list is required under: Moderate

  1. Section 103
  2. Section 105
  3. Section 165
  4. Section 100

Q9. Detention in custody and default bail (corresponding to old s.167 CrPC) is now governed by: Moderate

  1. Section 167
  2. Section 187
  3. Section 190
  4. Section 193

Q10. The police report (charge sheet) on completion of investigation is filed under: Moderate

  1. Section 173
  2. Section 190
  3. Section 193
  4. Section 210

Q11. Plea bargaining is contained in Chapter XXIII under sections: Moderate

  1. 265A–265L
  2. 289–300
  3. 320–321
  4. 227–235

Q12. Maintenance of wife, children and parents is now provided under: Easy

  1. Section 125
  2. Section 144
  3. Section 145
  4. Section 488

Q13. Anticipatory bail may be granted by: Moderate

  1. Any Magistrate
  2. Only the High Court
  3. The High Court or the Court of Session
  4. The Superintendent of Police

Q14. Bail in a bailable offence (as a matter of right) is dealt with under: Moderate

  1. Section 478
  2. Section 480
  3. Section 482
  4. Section 483

Q15. Trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender is newly provided under: Hard

  1. Section 299
  2. Section 339
  3. Section 355
  4. Section 356

Q16. The provision empowering trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode is: Easy

  1. Section 105
  2. Section 173
  3. Section 530
  4. Section 392

Q17. The mercy-petition procedure and timeline for death-sentence convicts is in: Hard

  1. Section 453
  2. Section 472
  3. Section 413
  4. Section 392

Q18. A Magistrate's order directing the police to investigate a cognizable case (old s.156(3)) is now under: Moderate

  1. Section 173
  2. Section 174
  3. Section 175
  4. Section 176

Q19. Community service as a form of punishment is introduced through the Explanation to: Moderate

  1. Section 21
  2. Section 23
  3. Section 4
  4. Section 53

Q20. Service of summons in electronic form is permitted under: Moderate

  1. Section 61
  2. Section 63
  3. Section 71
  4. Section 72

Q21. Release of an undertrial who has undergone one-half of the maximum sentence is under: Hard

  1. Section 436A
  2. Section 478
  3. Section 479
  4. Section 483

Q22. Recording of a confession or statement by a Magistrate is dealt with under: Moderate

  1. Section 164
  2. Section 180
  3. Section 183
  4. Section 187

Q23. Cognizance of an offence by a Magistrate is taken under: Moderate

  1. Section 190
  2. Section 200
  3. Section 210
  4. Section 223

Q24. The form of charges (framing of charge) is provided beginning at: Moderate

  1. Section 211
  2. Section 227
  3. Section 234
  4. Section 246

Q25. Pronouncement of judgment in open court and its uploading on the portal is referable to: Moderate

  1. Section 353
  2. Section 392
  3. Section 465
  4. Section 235

B · Argument / Application-wise MCQs (Q26–Q50)

Q26. A is arrested for an offence punishable with up to five years. Under s.35, the officer must: Moderate

  1. Do nothing extra
  2. Record reasons in writing showing the necessity of arrest
  3. Obtain the sanction of the SP
  4. File an FIR copy with the court

Q27. P, aged 65, is to be arrested for an offence punishable with under three years. What does s.35 require? Hard

  1. No arrest is ever possible
  2. Prior permission of an officer not below the rank of DSP
  3. A Magistrate's warrant
  4. Sanction of the SP

Q28. Where a woman is to be searched, the search must be carried out: Easy

  1. By any officer
  2. By another woman with strict regard to decency
  3. By a Magistrate
  4. By a doctor only

Q29. An arrested person is held 3 hours' journey from the court. The 24-hour production period: Moderate

  1. Includes the journey time
  2. Excludes the time necessary for the journey
  3. Is extended to 48 hours
  4. Does not apply

Q30. A cognizable offence is reported at a station where the offence did NOT occur. The officer should: Moderate

  1. Refuse to register it
  2. Register a Zero FIR irrespective of the area
  3. Seek SP permission first
  4. Record only a non-cognizable report

Q31. For an offence punishable between 3 and 7 years, before registering the FIR the officer may (with DSP permission) conduct: Hard

  1. A full trial
  2. A preliminary enquiry within 14 days
  3. An immediate arrest
  4. Plea bargaining

Q32. The maximum police custody under s.187 during the initial period may be: Moderate

  1. 24 hours
  2. 7 days
  3. 15 days (which may be sought in whole or in parts)
  4. 60 days

Q33. The charge sheet is not filed within 60 days for a non-serious offence. The accused is entitled to: Moderate

  1. Acquittal
  2. Default (statutory) bail
  3. Discharge
  4. Nothing

Q34. A first-time offender undertrial has served one-third of the maximum sentence. Under s.479 he may be: Hard

  1. Released on bond
  2. Acquitted
  3. Detained until trial ends
  4. Deported

Q35. Plea bargaining is sought in a case punishable with death. It is: Moderate

  1. Allowed
  2. Not available
  3. Allowed with the victim's consent
  4. Allowed if it is a first offence

Q36. An accused pleads guilty and is convicted on that plea. He wishes to appeal the conviction. Generally he: Moderate

  1. Can appeal fully
  2. Cannot appeal (except as to the legality or extent of the sentence)
  3. Can appeal only to the Supreme Court
  4. Gets an automatic review

Q37. A perishable item is seized as case property. The court may: Easy

  1. Always destroy it
  2. Order its sale and hold the proceeds
  3. Return it to the accused at once
  4. Ignore it

Q38. A search is conducted but not recorded by audio-video means. This primarily affects: Moderate

  1. Nothing at all
  2. Compliance with s.105 and the evidentiary integrity of the seizure
  3. Only the costs
  4. The court's jurisdiction

Q39. A Sessions Court awards a death sentence. It can be executed: Moderate

  1. Immediately
  2. After 30 days automatically
  3. Only after confirmation by the High Court
  4. After Supreme Court leave

Q40. A wife is living in adultery. Her maintenance claim under s.144 is: Moderate

  1. Allowed fully
  2. Barred
  3. Reduced by half
  4. Subject to SP approval

Q41. An accused is absconding and has been proclaimed. After recording reasons, the court may conduct: Hard

  1. Plea bargaining
  2. Trial in absentia (s.356)
  3. Only a summary trial
  4. No trial at all

Q42. A witness's statement to the police under s.180 may be recorded by: Moderate

  1. Writing only
  2. Audio-video electronic means
  3. Only before a Magistrate
  4. Only in court

Q43. A Judicial Magistrate of the first class can pass imprisonment up to: Moderate

  1. 1 year
  2. 3 years
  3. 7 years
  4. Life

Q44. A Chief Judicial Magistrate can pass imprisonment up to: Moderate

  1. 3 years
  2. 7 years
  3. Life
  4. Death

Q45. An offence is committed partly in area X and partly in area Y (a continuing offence). It may be tried: Moderate

  1. Only in X
  2. Only in Y
  3. In either X or Y
  4. Only by the High Court

Q46. A person needs anticipatory bail for a non-bailable offence. He should approach: Moderate

  1. The Station House Officer
  2. A Judicial Magistrate first class
  3. The High Court or the Court of Session
  4. The Executive Magistrate

Q47. A petty theft of property worth ₹15,000 is to be tried. The appropriate mode is: Hard

  1. Sessions trial
  2. Warrant trial
  3. Summary trial
  4. Plea bargaining only

Q48. The bond amount fixed for bail is very high and oppressive. Under s.484 it must be: Easy

  1. As high as possible
  2. Reasonable and not excessive
  3. Fixed by the SP
  4. Waived entirely

Q49. A successor forensic officer is asked to depose because the original signatory has retired. Under s.336 this is: Hard

  1. Not allowed
  2. Permitted
  3. Allowed only in the High Court
  4. Allowed only with Supreme Court leave

Q50. On an arrest, the duty to inform a relative or friend of the arrest and place of detention is under: Moderate

  1. Section 41
  2. Section 46
  3. Section 48
  4. Section 50

C · Statement / Assertion-wise MCQs (Q51–Q75)

Q51. Statement: Under BNSS an FIR can be registered irrespective of the area where the offence is committed. This is: Easy

  1. Correct (Zero FIR)
  2. Incorrect
  3. Correct only for women
  4. Correct only in metro cities

Q52. Statement: "Metropolitan Magistrate" is a class of criminal court under BNSS. This is: Hard

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect — BNSS does not retain Metropolitan Magistrates
  3. Correct only in Delhi
  4. Correct only for cities over 10 lakh

Q53. Statement: Plea bargaining is available for an offence against a woman or a child below 14 years. This is: Moderate

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect — such offences are excluded
  3. Correct with consent
  4. Correct only after charge

Q54. Two statements: (i) Community service is a punishment under BNSS. (ii) It carries no remuneration. Which is true? Moderate

  1. Only (i)
  2. Only (ii)
  3. Both (i) and (ii)
  4. Neither

Q55. Statement: Anticipatory bail can be granted by any Judicial Magistrate. This is: Moderate

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect — only the High Court or Court of Session
  3. Correct for bailable offences
  4. Correct in summons cases

Q56. Statement: The accused has a right to meet an advocate throughout interrogation. The precise position under s.38 is the accused may meet an advocate: Hard

  1. Throughout interrogation
  2. During interrogation (though not throughout)
  3. Never during interrogation
  4. Only after the charge is framed

Q57. Assertion (A): Default bail arises if the charge sheet is not filed in time. Reason (R): s.187 fixes 60/90-day limits. Which is correct? Moderate

  1. Both A and R are correct and R explains A
  2. A is wrong
  3. R is wrong
  4. Both are wrong

Q58. Statement: For an offence punishable with 7 years or more, a forensic expert must visit the scene. This is: Moderate

  1. Incorrect
  2. Correct (s.176(3))
  3. Correct only for murder
  4. Optional for the police

Q59. Statement: Summons can be served by electronic communication under BNSS. This is: Easy

  1. Correct (s.63)
  2. Incorrect
  3. Correct only to lawyers
  4. Correct only for warrants

Q60. Statement: A Magistrate of the second class may authorise police custody. This is: Hard

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect
  3. Correct with the SP's approval
  4. Correct for petty cases

Q61. Two statements: (i) In a bailable offence, bail is a matter of right. (ii) In a non-bailable offence, bail is discretionary. Which is true? Easy

  1. Only (i)
  2. Only (ii)
  3. Both (i) and (ii)
  4. Neither

Q62. Statement: Under s.479 no undertrial shall be detained beyond the maximum punishment prescribed for the offence. This is: Moderate

  1. Incorrect
  2. Correct
  3. Correct only for first-timers
  4. Correct only for women

Q63. Statement: A judgment must be pronounced in open court and uploaded on the portal. This is: Easy

  1. Incorrect
  2. Correct (s.392)
  3. Correct only in the High Court
  4. Optional

Q64. Statement: An order under s.163 (urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger) corresponds to old CrPC s.144. This is: Hard

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect
  3. It corresponds to s.133
  4. It corresponds to s.107

Q65. Statement: A "complaint" as defined includes a police report. This is: Moderate

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect — it expressly excludes a police report
  3. Correct only if cognizable
  4. Correct only if in writing

Q66. Statement: The initial maximum police custody is 15 days, which may be sought in parts during the first 40/60 days. This is: Hard

  1. Incorrect
  2. Correct
  3. It is only 7 days
  4. It is 90 days

Q67. Statement: Trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender requires no safeguards. The correct position is: Moderate

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect — safeguards apply (warrants, publication, recorded reasons, etc.)
  3. Only a newspaper notice is needed
  4. Only a relative's consent is needed

Q68. Statement: The victim is entitled to be informed of the progress of investigation within 90 days. This is: Moderate

  1. Incorrect
  2. Correct (s.193)
  3. It is within 30 days
  4. It is within 7 days

Q69. Statement: A bailable warrant may be issued with an endorsement to release the person on executing a bond. This is: Moderate

  1. Incorrect
  2. Correct (s.73 endorsement)
  3. Correct only for women
  4. Correct only in the High Court

Q70. Statement: The limitation for taking cognizance of an offence punishable with imprisonment up to one year is generally one year. This is: Hard

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect — it is 6 months
  3. It is 3 years
  4. There is no limitation

Q71. Two statements: (i) s.531 repeals the CrPC. (ii) Pending matters continue under the old Code. Which is true? Moderate

  1. Only (i)
  2. Only (ii)
  3. Both (i) and (ii)
  4. Neither

Q72. Statement: In a summons case a formal written charge must be framed. This is: Hard

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect — only the substance of the accusation is stated
  3. It is skipped only in warrant cases
  4. A charge is always framed

Q73. Statement: Maintenance can be claimed by parents unable to maintain themselves. This is: Easy

  1. Incorrect
  2. Correct (s.144)
  3. Only the mother can claim
  4. Only the father can claim

Q74. Statement: An appeal lies as a matter of course from every order of a criminal court. The correct position under s.413 is: Moderate

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect — an appeal lies only as provided by law
  3. Appeal lies only to the Supreme Court
  4. Appeal lies only to the High Court

Q75. Statement: Evidence may be recorded by audio-video electronic means in the presence of the accused or the advocate. This is: Moderate

  1. Incorrect
  2. Correct (electronic mode, s.308 / s.530)
  3. Correct only in the High Court
  4. Correct only for expert witnesses

D · Short-answer Questions (SA1–SA20)

  1. State the date of commencement of the BNSS and the law it repeals.
  2. Define "cognizable offence" and "non-cognizable offence" under s.2.
  3. Distinguish a "bail bond" from a "bond" under s.2.
  4. What is a "Zero FIR"? Which section recognises it?
  5. List the classes of criminal courts under s.6.
  6. What is the sentencing power of a Judicial Magistrate of the first class (s.23)?
  7. Explain the "24-hour rule" of arrest and what time is excluded from it.
  8. What special protection does s.35 give to persons who are infirm or above 60 years?
  9. State two duties created by s.37 (designated officer / control room).
  10. When must a search and seizure be recorded by audio-video means (s.105)?
  11. What is the rule under s.176(3) for offences punishable with 7 years or more?
  12. Explain default (statutory) bail and the 60/90-day limits under s.187.
  13. What is the new undertrial-release rule under s.479?
  14. Name three categories of cases where plea bargaining is NOT available (s.289).
  15. Who can grant anticipatory bail and for what kind of offence?
  16. What is community service as a punishment, and is it remunerated?
  17. State the safeguards for a trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender (s.356).
  18. Who may file a mercy petition under s.472, and to whom?
  19. What does s.530 provide regarding electronic mode?
  20. Distinguish "appeal" from "revision" in one or two lines.

E · Descriptive / Essay Questions (D1–D10)

  1. Trace the journey of a criminal case under the BNSS from the registration of an FIR to the pronouncement of judgment, citing the key sections at each stage.
  2. "The BNSS marks a decisive shift towards a technology-driven criminal process." Discuss with reference to ss.63, 105, 173, 176, 180, 183, 392 and 530.
  3. Examine the law of arrest under Chapter V, focusing on the safeguards available to an arrested person.
  4. Critically discuss the provisions relating to police custody and default bail under s.187, comparing the position with the old s.167 CrPC.
  5. Explain plea bargaining under Chapter XXIII, including its scope, procedure and exclusions.
  6. Discuss the law of bail under the BNSS, distinguishing bailable from non-bailable offences and explaining anticipatory bail and the undertrial-release reform (s.479).
  7. Analyse the new provision for trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender (s.356) and the safeguards it incorporates.
  8. Describe the powers of the various criminal courts to pass sentences (Chapter III) and the introduction of community service.
  9. Write a note on the maintenance of wives, children and parents under Chapter X (ss.144–147).
  10. Explain the scheme of appeals, reference and revision under the BNSS (Chapters XXXI–XXXII), and distinguish an appeal from a revision.

Answer Key & Explanations

Try the questions before revealing the answers. Each answer cites the governing provision.

A · Section-wise (Q1–Q25)

Q1 — (C) 1 July 2024. The BNSS received assent on 25 Dec 2023 and was brought into force on 1 July 2024.
Q2 — (C) Section 531. s.531 repeals the CrPC, 1973, with a saving for pending matters.
Q3 — (C) 531. The BNSS has 531 sections across 39 chapters (the CrPC had 484).
Q4 — (A) Section 35. s.35 sets out when a police officer may arrest without a warrant and the safeguards attached.
Q5 — (C) Section 58. s.58 carries forward the constitutional 24-hour production rule (Art 22).
Q6 — (B) Section 173. s.173 allows information of a cognizable offence irrespective of area (Zero FIR) and in electronic form.
Q7 — (A) Section 176(3). For 7+ year offences a forensic expert must visit the scene; the process is videographed.
Q8 — (B) Section 105. Search and the seizure list must be recorded by audio-video electronic means, preferably a mobile phone.
Q9 — (B) Section 187. s.187 governs custody and default bail (the BNSS successor to old s.167 CrPC).
Q10 — (C) Section 193. s.193 deals with the report of police on completion of investigation (charge sheet).
Q11 — (B) Sections 289–300. Chapter XXIII (ss.289–300) contains plea bargaining under the BNSS.
Q12 — (B) Section 144. Maintenance (old s.125 CrPC) is now s.144 of the BNSS.
Q13 — (C) High Court or Court of Session. Anticipatory bail (s.482) lies only before the High Court or the Court of Session.
Q14 — (A) Section 478. s.478 makes bail in a bailable offence a matter of right.
Q15 — (D) Section 356. s.356 newly permits trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender, with safeguards.
Q16 — (C) Section 530. s.530 allows trials, inquiries and proceedings to be held in electronic mode.
Q17 — (B) Section 472. s.472 lays down the mercy-petition procedure and timeline for death-sentence convicts.
Q18 — (C) Section 175. s.175(3) is the BNSS counterpart of old s.156(3) CrPC (Magistrate's order to investigate).
Q19 — (B) Section 23. The Explanation to s.23 introduces community service, performed without remuneration.
Q20 — (B) Section 63. s.63 permits summons to be served in electronic form.
Q21 — (C) Section 479. s.479 entitles an undertrial who has served half the maximum to bail (one-third for first-timers).
Q22 — (C) Section 183. s.183 governs recording of confessions/statements by a Magistrate (audio-video, advocate present).
Q23 — (C) Section 210. s.210 sets out how a Magistrate takes cognizance of an offence.
Q24 — (C) Section 234. s.234 prescribes the form of charge; particulars follow in s.235.
Q25 — (B) Section 392. s.392 requires judgment in open court and uploading on the portal (≈7 days).

B · Argument / Application-wise (Q26–Q50)

Q26 — (B). For arrest in cases up to 7 years, s.35 requires the officer to record reasons showing the necessity of arrest.
Q27 — (B). s.35(7): for the infirm or those above 60 in offences under 3 years, arrest needs prior permission of an officer not below DSP.
Q28 — (B). A woman must be searched only by another woman with strict regard to decency (s.49 search provisions).
Q29 — (B). The 24-hour period under s.58 excludes the time necessary for the journey to the court.
Q30 — (B). s.173 mandates registration irrespective of area — the statutory Zero FIR.
Q31 — (B). s.173(3): for 3-to-<7 year offences, a preliminary enquiry (within 14 days) may be made with DSP permission.
Q32 — (C). s.187 allows police custody up to 15 days, which may be sought in whole or in parts during the initial 40/60 days.
Q33 — (B). Failure to file the charge sheet within the period gives the accused an indefeasible right to default bail (s.187).
Q34 — (A). s.479: a first-time offender is released on bond after serving one-third of the maximum sentence.
Q35 — (B). Plea bargaining (s.289) is excluded for offences punishable with death, life or over 7 years.
Q36 — (B). s.416 bars an appeal where conviction is on a guilty plea, except as to the legality/extent of sentence.
Q37 — (B). s.497 lets the court order the sale of perishable property and hold the proceeds.
Q38 — (B). s.105 requires audio-video recording of search/seizure; non-compliance bears on evidentiary integrity.
Q39 — (C). A death sentence by a Sessions Court is executed only after High Court confirmation (ss.407–412, 453).
Q40 — (B). A wife living in adultery is not entitled to maintenance under the proviso to s.144.
Q41 — (B). s.356 permits trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender after recorded reasons and safeguards.
Q42 — (B). s.180 allows a witness's statement to police to be recorded by audio-video electronic means.
Q43 — (B). s.23: a JM first class may pass imprisonment up to 3 years (and/or fine up to ₹50,000, community service).
Q44 — (B). s.23: a CJM may pass any sentence except death, life, or imprisonment exceeding 7 years.
Q45 — (C). For continuing/multi-area offences, trial may be in any of the local areas concerned (s.197 onwards).
Q46 — (C). Anticipatory bail (s.482) is sought before the High Court or the Court of Session.
Q47 — (C). s.283 makes summary trial available for petty theft/stolen property where the value does not exceed ₹20,000.
Q48 — (B). s.484: the bond amount must be fixed with due regard to circumstances and must not be excessive.
Q49 — (B). s.336 permits a successor public servant/expert to depose when the original signatory is unavailable.
Q50 — (C). s.48 requires the police to inform a relative/friend of the arrest and place of detention.

C · Statement / Assertion-wise (Q51–Q75)

Q51 — (A). Correct — s.173 allows registration irrespective of area (Zero FIR).
Q52 — (B). Incorrect — the BNSS does not retain the class of Metropolitan Magistrate; courts are Sessions, JM-1, JM-2 and Executive Magistrate (s.6).
Q53 — (B). Incorrect — offences against a woman or a child below 14 are excluded from plea bargaining (s.289).
Q54 — (C). Both true — community service is a punishment and the Explanation to s.23 makes clear it carries no remuneration.
Q55 — (B). Incorrect — anticipatory bail (s.482) lies only before the High Court or the Court of Session.
Q56 — (B). s.38 entitles the accused to meet an advocate during interrogation, though not throughout the interrogation.
Q57 — (A). Both correct and R explains A — default bail flows from the 60/90-day limits in s.187.
Q58 — (B). Correct — s.176(3) mandates a forensic visit for offences punishable with 7 years or more.
Q59 — (A). Correct — s.63 allows electronic service of summons.
Q60 — (B). Incorrect — a second-class Magistrate is not empowered to authorise police custody under s.187.
Q61 — (C). Both true — bailable = right (s.478); non-bailable = discretion (s.480).
Q62 — (B). Correct — s.479 bars detention beyond the maximum punishment for the offence.
Q63 — (B). Correct — s.392 requires judgment in open court and online uploading.
Q64 — (A). Correct — s.163 (urgent nuisance/apprehended danger) corresponds to old CrPC s.144.
Q65 — (B). Incorrect — the definition of "complaint" in s.2 expressly excludes a police report.
Q66 — (B). Correct — police custody up to 15 days may be sought in parts within the initial 40/60-day window (s.187).
Q67 — (B). Incorrect — s.356 builds in safeguards (recorded reasons, two warrants 30 days apart, publication, notice to relatives, etc.).
Q68 — (B). Correct — s.193 requires the victim to be kept informed of progress within 90 days.
Q69 — (B). Correct — s.73 allows a bailable-warrant endorsement directing release on a bond.
Q70 — (A). Correct — limitation is 6 months (fine only), 1 year (≤1 year imprisonment) and 3 years (1–3 years).
Q71 — (C). Both true — s.531 repeals the CrPC but saves pending matters under the old Code.
Q72 — (B). Incorrect — in a summons case (s.274) only the substance of the accusation is stated; no formal charge is framed.
Q73 — (B). Correct — s.144 allows a father or mother unable to maintain themselves to claim maintenance.
Q74 — (B). Incorrect — s.413 makes appeal a creature of statute; it lies only as provided by law.
Q75 — (B). Correct — evidence may be recorded by audio-video electronic means in the presence of the accused/advocate (s.308; electronic mode s.530).

D · Short-answer — model pointers (SA1–SA20)

SA1. In force 1 July 2024; repeals the CrPC, 1973 (s.531).
SA2. Cognizable — police may arrest without warrant / investigate without order; non-cognizable — neither, without a Magistrate's order (s.2).
SA3. "Bail bond" = an undertaking with sureties; "bond" = a personal undertaking without sureties (s.2).
SA4. An FIR registrable irrespective of the area where the offence occurred; recognised in s.173.
SA5. Sessions Court, Judicial Magistrate of the first and second class, and Executive Magistrate (s.6).
SA6. Imprisonment up to 3 years, fine up to ₹50,000, or community service (s.23).
SA7. Production before a Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest; time for the journey to court is excluded (s.58).
SA8. Arrest of the infirm or those above 60 for offences under 3 years needs prior DSP permission (s.35(7)).
SA9. Designate a police officer to maintain arrest information and display it; maintain district/State control rooms (s.37).
SA10. Whenever a search and seizure list is prepared, it must be recorded by audio-video means (s.105).
SA11. A forensic expert must visit the crime scene and the collection be videographed for 7+ year offences (s.176(3)).
SA12. If the charge sheet is not filed within 60 days (90 for serious offences), the accused gets default bail (s.187).
SA13. An undertrial who has served half the maximum is released on bail (one-third for first-timers); never beyond the maximum (s.479).
SA14. Death/life/over-7-year offences; socio-economic offences; offences against a woman or a child below 14 (s.289).
SA15. Only the High Court or Court of Session, for a non-bailable offence (s.482).
SA16. Unpaid work the court may order benefiting the community; it carries no remuneration (Explanation to s.23).
SA17. Recorded reasons; two warrants 30 days apart; newspaper publication; notice to a relative; affixing of notice (s.356).
SA18. The convict, or a legal heir/relative, to the Governor and/or the President within the prescribed time (s.472).
SA19. Trials, inquiries and proceedings — including summons, evidence and appeals — may be held in electronic mode (s.530).
SA20. Appeal — a statutory right on facts and law; revision — a discretionary supervisory check on legality/propriety (ss.413, 438).
📝 Descriptive questions (D1–D10)

These are open-ended. Build your answers around the section references highlighted throughout this module — state the provision, explain it in your own words, add a short illustration, and (where relevant) note how the BNSS position differs from the old CrPC.

Quick Revision Zone

Last-minute, high-yield recall. Skim the cards, then the section-wise table and the "most-tested" lists.

Foundations

In force 1 July 2024 · 531 sections · 39 chapters · s.531 repeals CrPC 1973 · definitions in s.2.

Arrest

s.35 (no warrant) · memo & ID (s.36) · control room/display (s.37) · 24-hr rule (s.58) · DSP nod for 60+/infirm (s.35(7)).

FIR & Investigation

Zero/e-FIR (s.173) · order to investigate (s.175) · forensic visit 7+ yrs (s.176) · custody & default bail (s.187) · charge sheet (s.193).

Trial & Charge

Cognizance (s.210) · charge (s.234–235) · four trial types (Ch XIX–XXII) · plea bargaining (s.289–300) · summary &le;₹20,000 (s.283).

Bail & Beyond

Bailable right (s.478) · non-bailable discretion (s.480) · anticipatory (s.482) · undertrial release (s.479) · judgment online (s.392).

The "NEW" list

Community service (s.23) · s.105 recording · s.356 trial in absentia · s.472 mercy timeline · s.530 electronic mode.

Table 8 — Section-wise quick revision
SectionSubjectOne-line memory hook
s.2DefinitionsBail, bailable, cognizable, complaint, summons/warrant-case
s.6Classes of courtsSessions · JM-1 · JM-2 · Executive (no Metropolitan)
s.23SentencingCJM 7 yrs · JM-1 3 yrs · JM-2 1 yr · community service NEW
s.35Arrest w/o warrantRecord necessity · DSP nod for 60+/infirm
s.5824-hour ruleProduce in 24 hrs; journey time excluded
s.105Search recordingAudio-video of search/seizure → Magistrate
s.173FIRZero FIR + e-FIR (signed in 3 days)
s.176(3)ForensicsExpert visit + videography for 7+ yrs
s.187Custody15-day PC in parts · default bail 60/90
s.193Charge sheetReport on completion · 90-day victim update
s.210CognizanceOf the offence, not the offender
s.234ChargeOffence + section + language
s.283Summary trialPetty theft/stolen property &le; ₹20,000
s.289Plea bargainingNot for death/life/>7 yrs, women/child <14
s.356Trial in absentiaProclaimed offender · recorded reasons NEW
s.392JudgmentOpen court · uploaded online (≈7 days)
s.472Mercy petitionConvict/heir/relative · fixed timeline NEW
s.478–479BailBailable = right · undertrial ½ (⅓ first-timer) release
s.482Anticipatory bailOnly HC or Court of Session
s.530Electronic modeWhole process can go digital
s.531RepealCrPC 1973 repealed; pending matters saved

🔥 Most-tested sections

s.35 Arrest s.58 24-hr rule s.173 FIR s.187 Custody/default bail s.193 Charge sheet s.210 Cognizance s.289 Plea bargaining s.478–479 Bail s.482 Anticipatory bail s.530 Electronic mode s.531 Repeal

⚖️ Key distinctions to memorise

  • Bailable vs non-bailable: right (s.478) vs discretion (s.480).
  • Bail bond vs bond: with sureties vs without sureties (s.2).
  • Complaint vs police report: a complaint excludes a police report (s.2).
  • Summons-case vs warrant-case: warrant-case = death/life/over-2-years (s.2).
  • Appeal vs revision: statutory right on fact/law vs discretionary supervisory check.
  • Cancellation vs refusal of bail: cancellation needs fresh, cogent grounds.

⚠️ Common traps

  • BNSS has no Metropolitan Magistrate class.
  • Anticipatory bail — only HC or Court of Session, never a JM.
  • The 24-hour period excludes journey time.
  • Right to advocate is during interrogation, not throughout (s.38).
  • Plea bargaining is barred for offences against a woman or child below 14.
  • A second-class Magistrate cannot authorise police custody.
Disclaimer: This resource is for educational purposes only and does not constitute legal advice. It is based on the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023; always verify against the latest official Bare Act and amendments before relying on any provision.

AIBE 2026 Study Module · Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 · Section references are to the BNSS, 2023.

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