The Mediation Act, 2023

AIBE 2026 – The Mediation Act, 2023

The Mediation Act, 2023

A Bare-Act-based, chapter-wise & section-wise revision module for AIBE 2026 — simple English, exam-focused, fully self-contained.

Act No. 32 of 2023 Assent: 14 Sept 2023 11 Chapters · 65 Sections 10 Schedules ADR · for AIBE 2026
Introduction

What this Act is about

The Mediation Act, 2023 is India's first dedicated, comprehensive law on mediation. Earlier, mediation was scattered across the Code of Civil Procedure, the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, the Legal Services Authorities Act and a few other statutes. This Act brings everything together — it defines mediation, promotes institutional mediation, provides for online and community mediation, makes a mediated settlement enforceable like a court decree, and creates the Mediation Council of India to register mediators and recognise institutions.

The long title says the aim is to promote and facilitate mediation (especially institutional mediation) for resolving disputes, to enforce mediated settlement agreements, to set up a body for registration of mediators, to encourage community mediation, and to make online mediation acceptable and cost-effective.

Why mediation law matters for AIBE

AIBE tests practical, bare-act knowledge. Mediation is a high-yield ADR topic: examiners love section numbers (time-limits, challenge grounds, the Council), and the trap points (voluntary vs mandatory pre-litigation mediation, the 120+60 day clock, limited grounds of challenge). Learn the numbers and the exceptions.

Quick navigation — jump to a chapter

Chapter IPreliminary · S.1
Chapter IIApplication · S.2–3
Chapter IIIMediation · S.4–7
Chapter IVMediators · S.8–12
Chapter VProceedings · S.13–26
Chapter VIEnforcement · S.27–29
Chapter VIIOnline · S.30
Chapter VIIICouncil · S.31–39
Chapter IXProviders & Institutes · S.40–42
Chapter XCommunity · S.43–44
Chapter XIMiscellaneous · S.45–65
Chapter-wise · Section-wise

The Act, chapter by chapter

Click a chapter tab, then open any section to read a simple Bare-Act explanation with examples, trap points and exam takeaways.

Chapter I — Preliminary Section 1

What it says: The Act is called the Mediation Act, 2023. It extends to the whole of India. It comes into force on the date the Central Government notifies, and different dates may be appointed for different provisions.

  • Short title — "Mediation Act, 2023".
  • Extent — whole of India.
  • Commencement — by Central Government notification; provisions can start on different dates.

Example

Like many modern Acts, some sections (for example, those setting up the Council) were notified first so the institutional machinery could be built before the rest came into operation.

Exam takeaway

Remember: whole of India + staggered commencement by notification.

Chapter II — Application Sections 2–3

What it says: The Act applies where mediation is conducted in India and any of these is true:

  • all or both parties habitually reside / are incorporated / have their place of business in India; or
  • the mediation agreement says the dispute will be resolved under this Act; or
  • it is an international mediation; or
  • one party is the Central/State Government or its agencies, bodies, corporations or local bodies (including entities controlled or owned by them) and the matter is a commercial dispute; or
  • any other dispute notified by Government where such Government/agency is a party.

Example

Two companies both based in India agree to mediate a contract dispute in Delhi — the Act applies. If a State PSU mediates a commercial dispute, it also applies.

Key point

The common thread: mediation must be conducted in India, plus one of the listed connecting factors.

Section 3 is the dictionary of the Act. The most exam-relevant definitions:

  • Mediation [3(h)] — a process (including pre-litigation, online, community mediation or conciliation) where parties try to reach an amicable settlement with the help of a third person (the mediator) who cannot impose a settlement.
  • Mediator [3(i)] — a person appointed by the parties or a service provider, including one registered with the Council.
  • Mediation agreement [3(j)] — refers to S.4(1).
  • Mediated settlement agreement [3(n)] — refers to S.19(1).
  • Institutional mediation [3(f)] — mediation under the aegis of a mediation service provider.
  • International mediation [3(g)] — a commercial dispute where at least one party is foreign (foreign national/habitual resident, body corporate/LLP with place of business abroad, foreign association, or a foreign Government).
  • Online mediation [3(q)] — refers to S.30.
  • Mediation service provider [3(m)] — refers to S.40(1); mediation institute [3(l)] — body that trains, educates and certifies mediators.
  • Council [3(c)] — Mediation Council of India under S.31.
  • Pre-litigation mediation [3(u)] — refers to S.5; court-annexed mediation [3(e)] — mediation (including pre-litigation) at court/tribunal mediation centres.

Confusion point

"Conciliation" now sits inside the definition of "mediation" — internationally the terms are used interchangeably, and the Act subsumes conciliation under mediation (see Sixth Schedule).

Exam takeaway

The single most important idea in S.3(h): the mediator facilitates but does not impose any settlement.

Chapter III — Mediation Sections 4–7

What it says: A mediation agreement must be in writing. It may be a clause inside a contract or a separate agreement. It is "in writing" if it is in a signed document, an exchange of communications/letters (including electronic form under the IT Act, 2000), or pleadings where its existence is alleged by one party and not denied by the other.

  • Parties may agree to mediate disputes that have already arisen or may arise in future.
  • A reference in an agreement that incorporates a mediation clause counts as a mediation agreement (if in writing).
  • In international mediation, the agreement relates to commercial disputes.

Example

A supply contract contains a clause: "Any dispute shall first be referred to mediation." That clause itself is a valid mediation agreement.

What it says: Whether or not a mediation agreement exists, parties, before filing a civil or commercial suit, may voluntarily and with mutual consent take steps to settle through pre-litigation mediation under this Act.

  • For commercial disputes of Specified Value, pre-litigation mediation follows S.12A of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015.
  • Pre-litigation mediation is conducted by a mediator registered with the Council, or empanelled by a court-annexed centre, a Legal Services Authority, or a recognised service provider.
  • Special rule for motor-accident claims: if settlement under S.149 of the Motor Vehicles Act is not reached, the Claims Tribunal shall refer parties to mediation.

Trap point (very important)

The enacted S.5 makes pre-litigation mediation voluntary, with mutual consent. Many notes (and the Bill's Statement of Objects) called it "compulsory" — for AIBE, follow the Bare Act: it is voluntary, except where another law (like S.12A Commercial Courts Act for Specified-Value commercial suits) makes a separate requirement.

What it says: Mediation cannot be conducted for disputes in the indicative list in the First Schedule. However, a court may, if appropriate, refer compoundable offences (including compoundable matrimonial offences) to mediation — but the outcome is not a court judgment/decree and is further considered by the court. The Central Government may amend the First Schedule by notification.

Examples from the First Schedule

Criminal prosecutions; disputes against minors / persons of unsound mind; tax levy and offences; matters before the National Green Tribunal, SEBI, TRAI, electricity commissions; land acquisition compensation; declarations of title against Government; rights in rem.

What it says: Even if a dispute was not settled at the pre-litigation stage, a court or tribunal may, at any stage of a proceeding, refer the parties to mediation. It may pass a suitable interim order to protect a party's interest. Parties are not obliged to reach a settlement after such a reference.

Exam takeaway

S.7 = court-referred mediation "at any stage"; reference does not force a settlement.

Chapter IV — Mediators Sections 8–12

What it says: A person of any nationality may be a mediator (a foreign national needs specified qualification, experience and accreditation). Parties are free to agree on the mediator's name and the appointment procedure. If they cannot agree, the party seeking mediation applies to a mediation service provider, which must appoint a mediator within 7 days. The appointed mediator must communicate willingness within 7 days.

Exam takeaway

Two 7-day clocks: service provider appoints within 7 days; mediator confirms within 7 days.

What it says: When picking a mediator from its panel, the service provider must consider the mediator's suitability and the preference of the parties.

What it says: Before starting, the mediator must disclose in writing any circumstance (personal, professional, financial or otherwise) that may create a conflict of interest or raise justifiable doubts about independence/impartiality. New conflicts arising during mediation must also be disclosed without delay. Parties may waive the objection in writing (this is treated as consent). If a party still wants to replace the mediator: in institutional mediation, apply to the service provider; in other mediation, terminate the mediator's mandate directly.

Example

A mediator realises one party is a former client. He discloses this in writing. If both parties waive in writing, he may continue.

What it says: A service provider may terminate a mediator's mandate on a party's application, on information about a conflict, or on the mediator's withdrawal. Termination on conflict grounds happens only after hearing the mediator and finding justifiable doubt about independence/impartiality.

What it says: After the mandate ends, a replacement is appointed within 7 days — by the parties (non-institutional mediation under S.10(4)(ii)) or by the service provider from its panel (under S.11).

Chapter V — Mediation Proceedings Sections 13–26

Mediation is normally undertaken within the territorial jurisdiction of the competent court/tribunal. By mutual consent, it may be conducted outside that jurisdiction or online; for enforcement, challenge and registration it is then deemed to have happened within that jurisdiction.

Mediation is deemed to commence: if an agreement to mediate already exists, on the date a party receives the notice to refer the dispute; otherwise, on the date the chosen mediator consents, or the date a mediator is appointed by the service provider.

The mediator assists the parties in an independent, neutral and impartial manner, guided by objectivity and fairness, protecting voluntariness, confidentiality and self-determination. The mediator may meet parties jointly or separately. Importantly, the mediator is not bound by the CPC, 1908 or the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and decides the language with the parties' consent.

Exam takeaway

Mediator is free from CPC and Evidence Act — a frequently asked point.

The mediator only facilitates — helps parties identify issues, understand each other and explore options. He must expressly tell the parties that he cannot impose a settlement and gives no assurance of one.

The mediator cannot act as an arbitrator, representative or counsel in any arbitral/judicial proceeding on the same dispute, and cannot be made a witness in such proceedings.

Mediation must be completed within 120 days from the date fixed for the first appearance before the mediator. This may be extended by a further period as agreed, not exceeding 60 days (so 120 + 60 = 180 days maximum).

Trap point

The number to remember is 120 + 60. Do not confuse with any "180 + 180" figure; the enacted section says 120 days, extendable by up to 60.

An MSA is a written agreement from mediation settling some or all disputes, signed by the parties and authenticated by the mediator. Its terms may extend beyond the disputes referred. An agreement that is void under the Contract Act, 1872 is not a lawful MSA. In institutional mediation, the mediator authenticates and forwards it to the service provider (copy to parties); in other cases, the mediator authenticates and gives copies to parties. An MSA includes one from online mediation.

For record purposes, an MSA (other than one from court/tribunal-referred mediation or a Lok Adalat / Permanent Lok Adalat award) may, at the option of the parties, be registered with a Legal Services Authority or notified body, which issues a unique registration number. Registration should be within 180 days of receiving the authenticated copy (later registration allowed on payment of fee).

Key point

Registration is optional; non-registration does not affect the right to enforce (S.27) or challenge (S.28).

If no settlement is reached within the time limit, or the mediator thinks settlement is not possible, he prepares a non-settlement report — to the service provider (institutional) or signed copies to the parties (other cases). The report must not disclose the cause of non-settlement or the parties' conduct.

Everyone involved must keep mediation matters confidential — admissions, proposals, apologies, documents prepared for mediation and all mediation communication. No audio or video recording is allowed (in person or online). Such material cannot be used as evidence, and a court/tribunal shall not take cognizance of it. A mediator may use anonymised general information for research/training. Confidentiality does not block disclosure needed for registration, enforcement or challenge.

Trap point

No recording of the proceedings — even with the parties' consent.

No mediator or participant can be compelled to disclose mediation communications in any court/tribunal. Exceptions (no privilege): (a) a threat or plan to commit an offence; (b) information about domestic violence or child abuse; (c) statements showing a significant imminent threat to public health or safety. Also, privilege does not protect information needed to prove/disprove a complaint of the mediator's professional misconduct or malpractice.

Exam takeaway

Memorise the three exceptions: offence-threat, domestic violence/child abuse, imminent threat to public health/safety.

Mediation terminates on: signing/authentication of the MSA; the mediator's written declaration that further efforts are not justified; a party's written communication opting out; or expiry of the S.18 time limit.

The cost of mediation (other than community mediation) is as specified. Unless the parties agree otherwise, costs are borne equally, including the mediator's fee and the service provider's charges.

This Act does not apply to proceedings conducted by Lok Adalat and Permanent Lok Adalat under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.

Chapter VI — Enforcement of MSA Sections 27–29

An MSA signed by the parties and authenticated by the mediator is final and binding and enforceable under the CPC, 1908, as if it were a judgment or decree of a court. It can be relied on by way of defence, set-off or otherwise.

Exam takeaway

MSA = enforceable like a civil decree. (Contrast community mediation — S.44.)

An MSA can be challenged before a competent court/tribunal on only these grounds: (i) fraud; (ii) corruption; (iii) impersonation; (iv) the mediation was conducted in matters not fit for mediation under S.6. The application must be made within 90 days of receiving the copy under S.19(3); a further 90 days is allowed for sufficient cause.

Trap point

The grounds are a closed, exhaustive list of four. No "general unfairness" ground exists.

Despite the Limitation Act, 1963, the time from the commencement of mediation (S.14) up to the submission of a non-settlement report (S.21) or termination (S.24) is excluded when computing the limitation period for related proceedings.

Chapter VII — Online Mediation Section 30

Online mediation (including pre-litigation) may be conducted at any stage with the written consent of the parties — using electronic form or computer networks such as encrypted email, secure chat rooms, or video/audio conferencing. The process is as specified, and the mediator must ensure the integrity and confidentiality of the proceedings.

Example

Parties in two different cities mediate over a secure video platform with written consent — fully valid under S.30.

Exam relevance

Online mediation = written consent + integrity + confidentiality. It makes mediation cheaper and more accessible.

Chapter VIII — Mediation Council of India Sections 31–39

The Central Government, by notification, establishes the Mediation Council of India. It is a body corporate with perpetual succession and a common seal, can hold property, contract, and sue or be sued. Head office at Delhi (or as notified); it may set up offices in India and abroad.

The Council has a Chairperson; a Member with law/ADR experience; an eminent Member from research/teaching in mediation/ADR; the Secretary (Dept. of Legal Affairs) ex officio; the Secretary (Dept. of Expenditure) ex officio; the CEO as Member-Secretary ex officio; and one Part-Time Member from a recognised body of commerce and industry. Non-ex-officio Members hold office for 4 years (reappointment allowed); age limit 70 (Chairperson) / 67 (others).

No act of the Council is invalid merely because of a vacancy, a defect in constitution/appointment, or an irregularity not affecting the merits.

A Member may resign in writing to the Central Government but continues until 3 months pass, or a successor takes over, or the term ends — whichever is earliest.

The Central Government may remove a Member who is insolvent, takes paid employment without permission, is convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude, acquires a prejudicial interest, abuses his position, or becomes incapable. The Member must be given a hearing.

The Council may appoint experts and constitute committees of experts as needed.

There is a CEO responsible for day-to-day administration, plus a Secretariat. Until regulations are made, the Central Government provides the necessary officers and staff.

Key functions: promote domestic and international mediation; develop India as a robust mediation hub; lay down guidelines for education, certification and assessment of mediators; provide for conduct of mediation and standards of professional/ethical conduct; register mediators (and renew/withdraw/suspend/cancel registration); recognise mediation institutes and service providers; hold trainings; enter MoUs; maintain an electronic depository of MSAs; and publish data and research.

Exam takeaway

Think of the Council as the regulator: it registers mediators, recognises institutes/providers, and keeps the MSA depository.

The Council prepares an annual report on implementation for the Central Government, which may take additional measures for effective implementation.

Chapter IX — Service Providers & Institutes Sections 40–42

A "mediation service provider" includes a body recognised by the Council, a Legal Services Authority, a court-annexed mediation centre, or any notified body. The Authority, court-annexed centre and notified bodies are deemed to be recognised by the Council.

They accredit mediators and maintain a panel, provide mediators and facilities, promote professional/ethical conduct, and facilitate registration of MSAs under S.20.

The Council recognises mediation institutes (which train, educate and certify mediators) to perform specified functions.

Chapter X — Community Mediation Sections 43–44

Any dispute likely to affect peace, harmony and tranquillity among residents or families of an area may be settled by community mediation with the prior mutual consent of the parties. An application is made to the Legal Services Authority, or to the District Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate where no Authority exists, which constitutes a panel of three community mediators from a notified permanent panel. Representation of women may be considered.

The panel of three devises a suitable procedure and tries to resolve the dispute amicably. A settlement is written, signed by the parties and authenticated by the mediators. Importantly, a community-mediation settlement is for maintaining peace/harmony and is NOT enforceable as a judgment or decree of a civil court. Section 20 (registration) applies mutatis mutandis.

Trap point

Contrast with S.27: a normal MSA is enforceable as a decree, but a community mediation settlement is not.

Chapter XI — Miscellaneous Sections 45–65

S.45: A "Mediation Fund," administered by the Council, promotes and facilitates mediation; it receives Government money, fees, donations and grants and pays Council salaries and expenses. S.46: The Council maintains accounts audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India; audited accounts are laid before Parliament.

S.47: The Council is bound by Central Government policy directions (its views are considered first; the Government's decision on what is a policy question is final). S.48: Government may frame schemes/guidelines for resolving disputes through mediation where it is a party.

S.49: Where Government or its agency is a party, the settlement is signed only after prior written consent of the competent authority. S.50: No suit or prosecution lies for anything done in good faith under the Act.

S.51: Central Government may make rules. S.52: The Council, with Central Government approval, may make regulations. S.53: Notifications/rules/regulations are laid before Parliament. S.54: Power to remove difficulties (only within 5 years of commencement).

S.55: Subject to the Second Schedule, the Act has overriding effect on mediation/conciliation in other laws. S.56: The Act does not apply to mediation/conciliation commenced before it came into force. S.57: Existing court-annexed mediation rules continue until regulations under S.15(1) are made.

The Act amends eight statutes through Schedules: S.58 Indian Contract Act, 1872 (Third Sch — saving of contracts to refer to arbitration/mediation); S.59 CPC, 1908 (Fourth Sch — new S.89); S.60 Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 (Fifth Sch); S.61 Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 (Sixth Sch — conciliation now read as mediation); S.62 MSMED Act, 2006 (Seventh Sch); S.63 Companies Act, 2013 (Eighth Sch — S.442); S.64 Commercial Courts Act, 2015 (Ninth Sch — S.12A); S.65 Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (Tenth Sch).

Exam takeaway

Most testable amendment: conciliation under the Arbitration Act is now construed as mediation under this Act.

High-priority revision

Most Important Sections for AIBE 2026

For each, a one-line gist, a memory trick and an exam caution.

S.2 — Application

Gist: Act applies when mediation is in India + a connecting factor.
Trick: "In India + one of five hooks."
Caution: Government party only triggers it for commercial disputes.

S.3 — Definitions

Gist: Mediator only facilitates; conciliation falls within "mediation".
Trick: "Facilitate, not dictate."
Caution: Mediator cannot impose a settlement.

S.4 — Mediation agreement

Gist: Must be in writing; clause or separate agreement.
Trick: "Writing — signed, exchanged, or pleaded-and-not-denied."
Caution: Oral agreement is not enough.

S.5 — Pre-litigation mediation

Gist: Voluntary, with mutual consent, before filing suit.
Trick: "Voluntary, not compulsory (Act itself)."
Caution: Commercial Courts Act S.12A still imposes its own rule for Specified-Value suits.

S.6 — Not fit for mediation

Gist: First Schedule lists excluded disputes.
Trick: "Crime, tax, minors, in-rem → out."
Caution: Court may still refer compoundable offences.

S.7 — Court reference

Gist: Court/tribunal may refer parties at any stage.
Trick: "Any stage, no forced settlement."
Caution: Parties are not bound to settle.

S.10 — Conflict & disclosure

Gist: Mediator must disclose conflicts in writing; parties may waive.
Trick: "Disclose → waive or replace."
Caution: Institutional = apply to provider; other = terminate directly.

S.15 — Conduct of mediation

Gist: Neutral, impartial; not bound by CPC or Evidence Act.
Trick: "Free of CPC + Evidence Act."
Caution: Don't say the mediator follows CPC procedure.

S.18 — Time-limit

Gist: 120 days, extendable by up to 60.
Trick: "120 + 60 = 180 max."
Caution: Not "180 + 180".

S.19 — MSA

Gist: Written, signed by parties, authenticated by mediator.
Trick: "Sign + authenticate."
Caution: A void contract is not a lawful MSA.

S.22 — Confidentiality

Gist: Keep everything confidential; no recording.
Trick: "No recording, no evidence."
Caution: Even consent cannot allow recording.

S.23 — Privilege exceptions

Gist: Privilege, except 3 carve-outs.
Trick: "Crime-threat · DV/child abuse · public-safety threat."
Caution: Also no privilege for mediator-misconduct complaints.

S.27 — Enforcement

Gist: MSA enforced under CPC like a decree.
Trick: "MSA = decree."
Caution: Community settlement is NOT a decree (S.44).

S.28 — Challenge

Gist: Only 4 grounds; within 90 (+90) days.
Trick: "Fraud · Corruption · Impersonation · Unfit (S.6)."
Caution: No general "unfairness" ground.

S.30 — Online mediation

Gist: Allowed at any stage with written consent.
Trick: "Written consent + confidentiality."
Caution: Integrity & confidentiality must be ensured.

S.31 — Council established

Gist: Mediation Council of India; body corporate.
Trick: "MCI = body corporate at Delhi."
Caution: Established by Central Government notification.

S.38 — Council functions

Gist: Registers mediators; recognises institutes/providers.
Trick: "Register · Recognise · Repository."
Caution: Council keeps the electronic MSA depository.

S.40 — Service provider

Gist: Includes recognised bodies, LSA, court-annexed centres.
Trick: "LSA + court centre = deemed recognised."
Caution: Don't confuse provider with institute (S.42).

S.43 — Community mediation

Gist: For peace/harmony; panel of three.
Trick: "Three mediators, mutual consent."
Caution: Settlement is not enforceable as a decree.

S.55 — Overriding effect

Gist: Act overrides other laws (subject to Second Schedule).
Trick: "Overrides, except Second-Schedule laws."
Caution: Some labour/family statutes are saved by the Second Schedule.
Reference tables

Tables for quick learning

1 · Important definitions (Section 3)
TermMeaning (simplified)Clause
MediationAmicable settlement with a third person who cannot impose a result3(h)
MediatorPerson appointed by parties/provider; includes Council-registered ones3(i)
Mediation agreementWritten agreement to refer disputes to mediation (S.4)3(j)
Mediated settlement agreementWritten, signed, authenticated settlement (S.19)3(n)
Institutional mediationMediation under a service provider3(f)
International mediationCommercial dispute with at least one foreign party3(g)
Online mediationMediation by electronic means (S.30)3(q)
CouncilMediation Council of India (S.31)3(c)
2 · Chapter-wise overview
ChapterTopicSections
IPreliminary1
IIApplication & Definitions2–3
IIIMediation (agreement, pre-litigation, unfit matters, court reference)4–7
IVMediators (appointment, conflict, replacement)8–12
VMediation Proceedings13–26
VIEnforcement of MSA27–29
VIIOnline Mediation30
VIIIMediation Council of India31–39
IXService Providers & Institutes40–42
XCommunity Mediation43–44
XIMiscellaneous (incl. amendments)45–65
3 · Mediation process flow (key timelines)
StageSectionPoint to remember
AgreementS.4In writing
Appointment of mediatorS.8Provider appoints in 7 days; mediator confirms in 7 days
CommencementS.14On notice / consent / appointment
CompletionS.18120 days + 60-day extension
SettlementS.19Signed + authenticated MSA
RegistrationS.20Optional, within 180 days
No settlementS.21Non-settlement report (no reasons disclosed)
EnforcementS.27As a decree under CPC
ChallengeS.284 grounds, within 90 (+90) days
4 · MSA: enforcement vs challenge
AspectEnforcement (S.27)Challenge (S.28)
NatureFinal & binding; like a decreeSet aside on limited grounds
Law appliedCPC, 1908Application to competent court/tribunal
GroundsFraud · corruption · impersonation · unfit matter (S.6)
Time90 days (+90 for sufficient cause)
5 · Council vs Service Provider vs Institute
BodyRoleSections
Mediation Council of IndiaRegulator — registers mediators, recognises bodies, MSA depository31–39
Mediation service providerConducts mediation — panel, facilities, registration of MSA40–41
Mediation instituteTrains, educates and certifies mediators42, 3(l)
6 · Mediation vs Litigation (one-look)
FeatureMediationLitigation
Decision-makerParties themselves (mediator facilitates)Judge decides
OutcomeMSA (enforceable as decree, S.27)Judgment/decree
ConfidentialityConfidential (S.22)Generally public
ProcedureFlexible; not bound by CPC/Evidence Act (S.15)Governed by CPC/Evidence Act
Time120 + 60 days (S.18)Often long
7 · Pre-litigation (S.5) vs Court-referred (S.7) mediation
PointPre-litigation (S.5)Court-referred (S.7)
WhenBefore filing a suitAt any stage of a pending proceeding
Who initiatesParties, voluntarily & with mutual consentCourt or tribunal
Compulsion to settleNoneNone (parties not obliged to settle)
8 · Confidentiality (S.22) & Privilege (S.23) summary
QuestionAnswer
Are proceedings confidential?Yes — admissions, proposals, documents, all communication
Recording allowed?No audio/video recording (S.22(2))
Can it be used as evidence?No; court/tribunal shall not take cognizance
Privilege exceptionsThreat of offence · domestic violence/child abuse · imminent public-safety threat (S.23)
See it at a glance

Flowchart & Mind-map

Two visuals to lock the structure in memory: the life-cycle of a mediation (agreement → settlement → enforcement → challenge) and a mind-map of the eleven chapters.

Mediation Agreement in writing · S.4 How mediation starts Pre-litigation S.5 (voluntary) · Court-referred S.7 Appointment of Mediator parties agree / provider · S.8 Conduct of Mediation confidential · S.13–22 · 120+60 days S.18 Settlement reached? No Mediator's report non-settlement · S.21 Yes Mediated Settlement Agreement signed + authenticated · S.19 Registration (optional) within 180 days · S.20 Enforceable as a decree like a court judgment · S.27 Challenge of MSA 4 grounds only · 90+90 days · S.28 Online mediation with consent · S.30 Confidentiality no recording · S.22 Community mediation amicable · S.43–44
Figure 1 — Life-cycle of a mediation: from agreement to enforcement and challenge (dashed = special modes).
Mediation Act 2023 65 sections Ch I · Preliminary S.1 Ch II · Application S.2–3 Ch III · Mediation S.4–7 Ch IV · Mediators S.8–12 Ch V · Proceedings S.13–26 Ch VI · Enforcement S.27–29 Ch VII · Online S.30 Ch VIII · Council S.31–39 Ch IX · Providers S.40–42 Ch X · Community S.43–44 Ch XI · Miscellaneous S.45–65
Figure 2 — Mind-map: the eleven chapters radiating from the Act with their section ranges.
Study plan

A 6-step roadmap to master this Act

A sensible order of attack for AIBE. Do them in sequence — each step builds on the previous.

1

Fix the skeleton

Memorise the eleven chapters and their section ranges (use Figure 2). Know that the Act is No. 32 of 2023, received assent on 14 September 2023, has 65 sections and 10 Schedules, and is India's first standalone mediation law.

2

Learn the definitions (S.3) cold

Mediation, mediated settlement agreement, mediator, mediation service provider, mediation institute, Council, court, pre-litigation mediation, registered MSA. Definitions are the easiest marks and feed every other answer.

3

Walk the process (Figure 1)

Agreement (S.4) → start pre-litigation/court-referred (S.5, S.7) → appoint mediator (S.8) → conduct (S.13–22) → MSA (S.19) → registration (S.20) → enforcement (S.27) → challenge (S.28). Tie each step to its section number.

4

Drill the high-yield numbers

120 + 60 days (S.18); challenge in 90 + 90 days on 4 grounds only (S.28); appointment 7 + 7 days (S.8); registration within 180 days (S.20); Council term 4 years, age 70/67 (S.32). These reappear every exam.

5

Master the traps & exceptions

Pre-litigation mediation is voluntary (not compulsory); disputes unfit for mediation are in the First Schedule (S.6); confidentiality has limited privilege exceptions (S.23); community-mediation settlement is not a decree (S.44). Examiners build wrong options from these.

6

Test & revise

Work through the 60 MCQs (section / argument / statement), then the short and descriptive questions. Reveal the answer key only after attempting. Finish with the quick-revision cards the night before.

Practice · Set 1

Section-wise MCQs 20 questions

Direct, section-anchored questions. Attempt first, then open the answer key at the bottom.

Q1Easy

The Mediation Act, 2023 is which Act of 2023?

  1. Act No. 23 of 2023
  2. Act No. 30 of 2023
  3. Act No. 32 of 2023
  4. Act No. 46 of 2023
Q2Easy

Under Section 1, the Act extends to —

  1. the whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir
  2. the whole of India
  3. only the States, not Union Territories
  4. only the territory of the Union Government
Q3Easy

A mediation agreement under Section 4 must be —

  1. oral or written
  2. in writing
  3. registered compulsorily
  4. notarised before a magistrate
Q4Moderate

As enacted, pre-litigation mediation under Section 5 is —

  1. compulsory for all civil suits
  2. voluntary, with mutual consent of the parties
  3. compulsory only for matrimonial disputes
  4. available only after a court order
Q5Moderate

Under Section 18, mediation must be completed within —

  1. 90 days, extendable by 90 days
  2. 120 days, extendable by 60 days
  3. 180 days, extendable by 180 days
  4. 60 days, extendable by 30 days
Q6Hard

A mediated settlement agreement can be challenged under Section 28 on —

  1. any ground of general unfairness
  2. only four grounds: fraud, corruption, impersonation, or matters unfit under S.6
  3. only the ground of fraud
  4. any ground available under the CPC
Q7Moderate

Under Section 15, the mediator is —

  1. bound by the CPC, 1908 and the Evidence Act, 1872
  2. bound by the Evidence Act only
  3. not bound by the CPC, 1908 or the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
  4. bound by the Arbitration Act, 1996
Q8Moderate

Regarding recording of mediation proceedings, Section 22 provides that —

  1. audio recording is allowed with consent
  2. video recording is allowed for institutional mediation
  3. no audio or video recording is permitted
  4. recording is mandatory for enforcement
Q9Moderate

Under Section 27, a duly signed and authenticated MSA is enforceable —

  1. only after a fresh suit is filed
  2. under the CPC, 1908 as if it were a judgment or decree of a court
  3. only if registered within 180 days
  4. only as a contract, by way of damages
Q10Moderate

Registration of an MSA under Section 20 is —

  1. mandatory within 30 days
  2. optional, ordinarily within 180 days of receiving the authenticated copy
  3. mandatory within 90 days
  4. not permitted at all
Q11Moderate

Where parties cannot agree on a mediator, the mediation service provider must appoint one within —

  1. 3 days
  2. 7 days
  3. 15 days
  4. 30 days
Q12Easy

The Mediation Council of India is established under —

  1. Section 27
  2. Section 30
  3. Section 31
  4. Section 40
Q13Moderate

Disputes that are not fit for mediation are set out in —

  1. the First Schedule (S.6)
  2. the Second Schedule (S.55)
  3. the Sixth Schedule (S.61)
  4. Section 28
Q14Easy

Online mediation under Section 30 requires —

  1. oral consent only
  2. the written consent of the parties
  3. court permission in every case
  4. no consent at all
Q15Moderate

A community mediation panel under Section 43 consists of —

  1. a single mediator
  2. two mediators
  3. three mediators
  4. five mediators
Q16Hard

A settlement reached through community mediation (S.44) is —

  1. enforceable as a decree like an ordinary MSA
  2. not enforceable as a judgment or decree of a civil court
  3. enforceable only after arbitration
  4. void in all cases
Q17Hard

Under Section 32, the maximum age for the Chairperson of the Council is —

  1. 65 years
  2. 67 years
  3. 70 years
  4. 62 years
Q18Moderate

A non-ex-officio Member of the Council holds office for a term of —

  1. 2 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 4 years
  4. 5 years
Q19Hard

Under Section 46, the accounts of the Council are audited by —

  1. a chartered accountant appointed by the Council
  2. the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
  3. the Reserve Bank of India
  4. the Central Government's internal audit wing
Q20Hard

The power to remove difficulties (Section 54) can be exercised within —

  1. 2 years of commencement
  2. 3 years of commencement
  3. 5 years of commencement
  4. at any time
Practice · Set 2

Argument-wise MCQs 20 questions

Short fact situations. Apply the Bare Act to the facts and pick the best answer.

Q1Easy

A and B, both companies with their place of business in India, sign a contract with a mediation clause and dispute it in India. Does the Act apply?

  1. No, mediation law never applies to companies
  2. Yes — mediation is in India and a connecting factor under S.2 is satisfied
  3. Only if the Government is a party
  4. Only after a suit is filed
Q2Moderate

Parties go through pre-litigation mediation but reach no settlement. Are they bound to settle?

  1. Yes, settlement is compulsory once mediation starts
  2. No — parties are never obliged to settle (S.5, S.7(3))
  3. Yes, unless the mediator excuses them
  4. Only the party who began mediation is bound
Q3Moderate

During mediation, the mediator learns that a party plans to commit an offence. Is this protected by confidentiality?

  1. Yes, everything in mediation is privileged
  2. No — there is no privilege for a threat or plan to commit an offence (S.23(2)(a))
  3. Only if the offence is non-bailable
  4. Yes, unless the other party objects
Q4Hard

The first appearance before the mediator is fixed for 10 January. Ignoring any extension, by when must mediation ordinarily be completed?

  1. Within 60 days of that date
  2. Within 90 days of that date
  3. Within 120 days of that date (S.18)
  4. Within 180 days of that date
Q5Moderate

A mediator who handled a dispute is later asked to act as the arbitrator in the same dispute. Is this permitted?

  1. Yes, with the parties' consent
  2. Yes, always
  3. No — a mediator shall not act as arbitrator in the same dispute (S.17)
  4. Only if the mediation failed
Q6Moderate

Parties in two different cities want to mediate by video conference. Is this allowed?

  1. No, mediation must be face-to-face
  2. Yes — online mediation is allowed with the written consent of the parties (S.30)
  3. Only with prior court permission
  4. Only for commercial disputes
Q7Hard

A party wants to challenge an MSA 100 days after receiving the copy, alleging fraud, and shows sufficient cause for the delay. Is the challenge maintainable?

  1. No, the limit of 90 days is absolute
  2. Yes — the court may allow it within a further 90 days on sufficient cause (S.28(3))
  3. No, fraud is not a ground of challenge
  4. Yes, an MSA can be challenged at any time
Q8Easy

Can a criminal prosecution for theft be referred to mediation under this Act?

  1. Yes, all disputes can be mediated
  2. No — disputes involving prosecution for criminal offences are not fit (First Schedule, S.6)
  3. Yes, with police permission
  4. Only if the accused agrees
Q9Moderate

A compoundable matrimonial offence is pending between the parties. Can the court refer it to mediation?

  1. No, all matrimonial matters are barred
  2. Yes — the court may refer compoundable offences, including compoundable matrimonial offences (proviso to S.6)
  3. Only after conviction
  4. Only the police can refer it
Q10Moderate

The parties settle only some of the disputes referred to mediation. Is the resulting MSA valid?

  1. No, an MSA must settle all disputes
  2. Yes — an MSA may settle some or all of the disputes (S.19(1))
  3. Only if a court approves the partial settlement
  4. No, partial settlements are void
Q11Hard

A community mediation settles a neighbourhood dispute. A party later seeks to execute it like a civil-court decree. Possible?

  1. Yes, like any MSA
  2. No — a community settlement is not enforceable as a judgment or decree of a civil court (S.44(4))
  3. Yes, after registration only
  4. Only with the DM's permission
Q12Moderate

The parties never registered their MSA. Can they still enforce it?

  1. No, registration is a pre-condition to enforcement
  2. Yes — registration is optional and does not affect enforcement under S.27 (S.20)
  3. Only if registered within 30 days
  4. No, an unregistered MSA is void
Q13Moderate

A (non-community) mediation ends; the parties had said nothing about who pays the cost. Who bears it?

  1. The party who started the mediation
  2. The losing party
  3. Equally by the parties, unless otherwise agreed (S.25(2))
  4. The mediation service provider
Q14Moderate

Parties cannot agree on a mediator, so one applies to the mediation service provider. Within how long must the provider appoint a mediator?

  1. 3 days
  2. 7 days (S.8(4))
  3. 15 days
  4. 30 days
Q15Hard

A State PSU reaches a settlement in mediation. Can its officer sign the MSA straight away?

  1. Yes, immediately
  2. No — it may be signed only after the prior written consent of the competent authority (S.49)
  3. Only after a court order
  4. Only the Council can sign for the PSU
Q16Moderate

Mediation fails and the mediator prepares a non-settlement report. Should the report state why the mediation failed?

  1. Yes, in full detail
  2. No — the report must not disclose the cause of non-settlement (proviso to S.21)
  3. Only if a party asks
  4. Only to the court
Q17Easy

Where is the head office of the Mediation Council of India?

  1. Mumbai
  2. Delhi, or such other place as notified (S.31(3))
  3. Kolkata
  4. Each State capital
Q18Hard

After this Act, how is a "conciliation" under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 to be treated?

  1. As arbitration
  2. As a Lok Adalat proceeding
  3. As mediation under the Mediation Act, 2023 (Sixth Schedule)
  4. It is abolished entirely
Q19Moderate

A mediation was already in progress before the Act came into force. Does the Act apply to it?

  1. Yes, retrospectively
  2. No — the Act does not apply to mediation commenced before its commencement (S.56)
  3. Only if the parties opt in
  4. Only the Council's parts apply
Q20Hard

Parties agree to mediate in Mumbai although the competent court is at Pune. For enforcement and challenge, which court's jurisdiction governs?

  1. The Mumbai court, where mediation took place
  2. The court of competent jurisdiction (Pune) — the mediation is deemed within its jurisdiction (Explanation to S.13)
  3. Any High Court
  4. The Supreme Court only
Practice · Set 3

Statement-wise MCQs 20 questions

Read both statements, then choose the correct option. Unless stated otherwise: (A) Only I is correct · (B) Only II is correct · (C) Both are correct · (D) Neither is correct.

Q1Easy

I. The Act extends to the whole of India. II. Mediation under the Act can be conducted only offline.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q2Moderate

I. A mediation agreement may be a clause within a contract. II. A mediation agreement must always be a separate stand-alone document.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q3Moderate

I. Pre-litigation mediation under Section 5 is voluntary as enacted. II. It requires the mutual consent of the parties.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q4Moderate

I. Mediation must be completed within 120 days of the first appearance. II. It can be extended by up to 90 days.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q5Hard

I. An MSA may be challenged on the ground that the mediator was rude. II. An MSA may be challenged on the ground of impersonation.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q6Moderate

I. The mediator is bound by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. II. The mediator is bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q7Easy

I. Audio recording of mediation is allowed with consent. II. Video recording is allowed in institutional mediation.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q8Moderate

I. Registration of an MSA is mandatory. II. Registration is ordinarily to be made within 180 days of receiving the authenticated copy.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q9Moderate

I. A duly authenticated MSA is enforceable like a decree under the CPC. II. It is final and binding on the parties.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q10Hard

I. There is no privilege for statements showing a significant imminent threat to public health or safety. II. There is no privilege for information relating to domestic violence or child abuse.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q11Moderate

I. The Mediation Council of India is a body corporate. II. It is established under Section 40.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q12Moderate

I. A non-ex-officio Member of the Council holds office for a term of four years. II. The Chairperson may hold office up to the age of 70 years.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q13Hard

I. A community mediation panel consists of three mediators. II. A community settlement is enforceable as a civil-court decree.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q14Moderate

I. Online mediation needs the written consent of the parties. II. Online mediation can be conducted at any stage of mediation.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q15Moderate

I. The First Schedule contains an indicative list of disputes not fit for mediation. II. The Central Government may amend the First Schedule by notification.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q16Easy

I. The accounts of the Council are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. II. The Council prepares a report on the implementation of the Act.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q17Hard

I. Conciliation under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is now construed as mediation. II. This Act applies to mediation or conciliation commenced before its commencement.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q18Moderate

I. Where Government is a party, the settlement may be signed only after the prior written consent of the competent authority. II. Unless otherwise agreed, the cost of mediation is borne equally by the parties.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q19Moderate

I. A non-settlement report must state the reasons for the failure of mediation. II. The power to remove difficulties cannot be exercised after five years from commencement.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Q20Hard

I. The Act has overriding effect, subject to the enactments listed in the Second Schedule. II. Lok Adalat and Permanent Lok Adalat proceedings are governed by this Act.

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only II is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Neither is correct
Write · Short answers

Short-answer questions 15 questions

Two to four sentences each. Anchor every answer to a section number.

  1. Define "mediation" as given in Section 3(h).
  2. What is a "mediation agreement", and in what forms is it treated as being "in writing" under Section 4?
  3. State the time-limit for completing mediation and the permitted extension (Section 18).
  4. List the four grounds on which a mediated settlement agreement may be challenged (Section 28).
  5. Within what period may an MSA be challenged, and what further extension is possible (Section 28(3))?
  6. Is pre-litigation mediation under Section 5 voluntary or compulsory, as the Act was enacted?
  7. Name any four categories of disputes that are not fit for mediation (First Schedule, Section 6).
  8. What is the legal effect of a duly signed and authenticated MSA (Section 27)?
  9. Is registration of an MSA mandatory? State the ordinary time-limit (Section 20).
  10. State any two situations in which the privilege/confidentiality of mediation does not apply (Section 23(2)).
  11. Under which section is the Mediation Council of India established, and where is its head office (Section 31)?
  12. How many mediators form a community mediation panel, and is the settlement enforceable as a decree (Sections 43–44)?
  13. What kind of consent is required for online mediation (Section 30)?
  14. Who bears the cost of (non-community) mediation if the parties do not agree otherwise (Section 25)?
  15. How is "conciliation" under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 treated after this Act (Sixth Schedule)?
Write · Long answers

Descriptive / long-answer questions 8 questions

Structure your answer: provision → key points → short example → conclusion.

  1. Explain the scheme of pre-litigation mediation under Section 5, including who may conduct it and the special provision for motor-accident claims.
  2. Discuss the enforcement of, and challenge to, a mediated settlement agreement under Sections 27 and 28.
  3. Explain confidentiality and the privilege against disclosure under Sections 22 and 23, together with their exceptions.
  4. Describe the composition, term and removal of Members of the Mediation Council of India (Sections 31–35).
  5. Explain the duties and functions of the Mediation Council of India under Section 38.
  6. Discuss community mediation under Sections 43 and 44, and how it differs from an ordinary mediated settlement agreement.
  7. Explain the role and obligations of a mediator, including conflict-of-interest disclosure and the bar on acting in other proceedings (Sections 10, 15, 16 and 17).
  8. Discuss the disputes and matters not fit for mediation under Section 6 and the First Schedule, and the court's power to still refer compoundable offences.
Self-check

Answer key & explanations

Attempt all 60 MCQs first. Then reveal the key — each answer carries a one-line, section-anchored reason.

Section-wise MCQs (Set 1)

Q1 — C. The Act is Act No. 32 of 2023.
Q2 — B. S.1(2): it extends to the whole of India.
Q3 — B. S.4(1): a mediation agreement shall be in writing.
Q4 — B. S.5(1): parties "may voluntarily and with mutual consent" take steps — so it is voluntary as enacted.
Q5 — B. S.18: 120 days from the first appearance, extendable by a further 60 days.
Q6 — B. S.28(2): the only grounds are fraud, corruption, impersonation, or matters not fit under S.6.
Q7 — C. S.15(5): the mediator is not bound by the CPC, 1908 or the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Q8 — C. S.22(2): no audio or video recording of the proceedings shall be made.
Q9 — B. S.27(2): the MSA is enforced under the CPC, 1908 as if it were a judgment or decree.
Q10 — B. S.20: registration is optional, ordinarily within 180 days of the authenticated copy.
Q11 — B. S.8(4): the service provider must appoint within seven days.
Q12 — C. S.31: the Mediation Council of India is established under Section 31.
Q13 — A. S.6(1) read with the First Schedule lists disputes not fit for mediation.
Q14 — B. S.30(1): online mediation requires the written consent of the parties.
Q15 — C. S.43(3): a panel of three community mediators is constituted.
Q16 — B. S.44(4): a community settlement is not enforceable as a judgment or decree of a civil court.
Q17 — C. S.32(2) proviso: the Chairperson may hold office up to 70 years (others up to 67).
Q18 — C. S.32(2): a non-ex-officio Member holds office for four years.
Q19 — B. S.46(2): the accounts are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Q20 — C. S.54(1) proviso: no such order after five years from commencement.

Argument-wise MCQs (Set 2)

Q1 — B. S.2: mediation is in India and the parties have their place of business in India.
Q2 — B. S.5 and S.7(3): parties are never obliged to settle.
Q3 — B. S.23(2)(a): no privilege attaches to a threat or plan to commit an offence.
Q4 — C. S.18: ordinarily 120 days from the date fixed for first appearance.
Q5 — C. S.17(a): a mediator shall not act as arbitrator in the same dispute.
Q6 — B. S.30(1): online mediation is allowed with the written consent of the parties.
Q7 — B. S.28(3): the court may entertain a challenge within a further 90 days on sufficient cause.
Q8 — B. First Schedule (item 3) with S.6: disputes involving criminal prosecution are not fit.
Q9 — B. Proviso to S.6(1): a court may refer compoundable offences, including compoundable matrimonial offences.
Q10 — B. S.19(1): an MSA may settle some or all of the disputes.
Q11 — B. S.44(4): a community settlement is not enforceable as a civil-court decree.
Q12 — B. S.20: registration is optional and does not affect enforcement under S.27.
Q13 — C. S.25(2): costs are borne equally unless the parties agree otherwise.
Q14 — B. S.8(4): appointment within seven days of the application.
Q15 — B. S.49: the MSA is signed only after the prior written consent of the competent authority.
Q16 — B. Proviso to S.21: the report must not disclose the cause of non-settlement.
Q17 — B. S.31(3): the head office is at Delhi, or as notified.
Q18 — C. Sixth Schedule (new S.61): conciliation under the 1996 Act is construed as mediation.
Q19 — B. S.56: the Act does not apply to mediation commenced before its commencement.
Q20 — B. Explanation to S.13: the mediation is deemed within the competent court's jurisdiction.

Statement-wise MCQs (Set 3)

Q1 — A. I is correct (S.1); II is wrong — online mediation is allowed (S.30).
Q2 — A. I is correct (S.4(2)); a clause or a separate agreement is allowed, so II is wrong.
Q3 — C. Both correct — S.5(1) makes it voluntary and requires mutual consent.
Q4 — A. I correct (120 days, S.18); II wrong — the extension is 60 days, not 90.
Q5 — B. I wrong — rudeness is not a ground; II correct — impersonation is a ground (S.28(2)).
Q6 — D. Neither — S.15(5): the mediator is bound by neither the CPC nor the Evidence Act.
Q7 — D. Neither — S.22(2): no audio or video recording is permitted.
Q8 — B. I wrong — registration is optional; II correct — ordinarily within 180 days (S.20).
Q9 — C. Both correct — S.27: an MSA is final and binding and enforceable like a decree.
Q10 — C. Both correct — S.23(2)(c) and (b) remove privilege in these situations.
Q11 — A. I correct (S.31(2), body corporate); II wrong — established under S.31, not S.40.
Q12 — C. Both correct — S.32(2): four-year term; Chairperson up to 70 years.
Q13 — A. I correct (S.43(3), three mediators); II wrong (S.44(4), not a decree).
Q14 — C. Both correct — S.30(1): written consent, at any stage.
Q15 — C. Both correct — S.6(1) (First Schedule list) and S.6(2) (amendment by notification).
Q16 — C. Both correct — S.46(2) (CAG audit) and S.39 (implementation report).
Q17 — A. I correct (Sixth Schedule); II wrong — S.56 excludes pending proceedings.
Q18 — C. Both correct — S.49 (Government consent) and S.25(2) (equal costs).
Q19 — B. I wrong — proviso to S.21 forbids disclosing the cause; II correct — S.54 five-year limit.
Q20 — A. I correct (S.55, subject to Second Schedule); II wrong — S.26 excludes Lok Adalat proceedings.
Night-before · Quick revision

Quick-revision cards

The high-yield numbers and rules examiners reuse. Glance through these last.

Key numbers

120 + 60 days to complete (S.18) · 7 days to appoint a mediator (S.8) · 180 days to register an MSA (S.20) · 90 + 90 days to challenge (S.28).

Challenge grounds (S.28)

Only four: fraud, corruption, impersonation, or matters not fit under S.6. Nothing else.

Enforcement (S.27)

A signed + authenticated MSA is final and binding and enforced under the CPC like a judgment or decree.

The Council

Mediation Council of India: established under S.31, body corporate, HQ at Delhi, 4-year term, age limit 70 (Chair) / 67 (others).

Online mediation (S.30)

Allowed at any stage with the written consent of the parties; confidentiality and integrity must be preserved.

Confidentiality (S.22–23)

No recording. No privilege for: a threat to commit an offence; domestic violence / child abuse; an imminent threat to public health or safety.

Community mediation (S.43–44)

Panel of three mediators; settlement keeps local peace but is NOT enforceable as a civil-court decree.

Not fit for mediation (S.6)

First Schedule: criminal prosecution, tax, competition, SEBI, electricity, NGT, land-acquisition compensation, third-party rights, etc.

Conciliation = mediation

Sixth Schedule: conciliation under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is now read as mediation under this Act.

Pre-litigation (S.5 & S.7)

Voluntary + mutual consent (S.5). A court or tribunal may still refer parties to mediation at any stage (S.7) — but no one is forced to settle.

Disclaimer: This resource is for educational purposes only and does not constitute legal advice. It is based on the Bare Act text of the Mediation Act, 2023 (Act No. 32 of 2023). Always verify section numbers against the latest official Gazette before relying on them.

AIBE 2026 revision module · The Mediation Act, 2023 · Built for self-study.

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